ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is providing discharge education to an adult patient who will begin a regimen of ocular medications for the treatment of glaucoma. How can the nurse best determine if the patient is able to self-administer these medications safely and effectively?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. By asking the patient to demonstrate the instillation of medications, the nurse can directly assess the patient's ability to self-administer the medications safely and effectively. This method allows for a practical demonstration of skills, which is more reliable than relying solely on verbal descriptions or past experiences. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because assessing for previous inability, describing the method, or evaluating functional status may not directly demonstrate the patient's competency in self-administering ocular medications.
Question 2 of 9
A patient diagnosed with cervical cancer will soon begin a round of radiation therapy. When planning the patients subsequent care, the nurse should prioritize actions with what goal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protecting the safety of the patient, family, and staff. This is the priority when planning care for a patient undergoing radiation therapy due to the potential risks of radiation exposure to others. Ensuring safety involves implementing proper radiation safety protocols, educating the patient and family on safety measures, and providing a safe environment for all. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Preventing hemorrhage is important but not the top priority during radiation therapy. Ensuring the patient understands the treatment's purpose is essential but not the immediate priority. Adherence to dietary restrictions is important for overall health but is not the primary focus when prioritizing actions for radiation therapy.
Question 3 of 9
Initiate feeding.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (2, 4, 1, 3, 5) because it follows the correct sequential order for initiating feeding. First, you need to prepare the food (2), then set up the feeding area (4), followed by inviting the person to eat (1), serving the food (3), and finally allowing them to eat (5). The other choices do not adhere to the logical sequence required for initiating feeding. Choice A and D have incorrect sequences of steps, while Choice C has steps 1 and 4 switched, which disrupts the proper order of initiating feeding.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse in a long-term care setting that is fundedby Medicare and Medicaid is completing standardized protocols for assessment and care planning for reimbursement. Which task is the nurse completing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A minimum data set. In a long-term care setting funded by Medicare and Medicaid, completing standardized protocols for assessment and care planning for reimbursement involves using a minimum data set, which is a standardized instrument for assessing residents' health status. This set of data elements is necessary for comprehensive assessment and care planning to ensure appropriate reimbursement. The other choices (B, C, D) do not specifically address the standardized protocols required for reimbursement in this setting. An admission assessment and acuity level would be part of the process, but not the primary task being completed in this scenario. A focused assessment on a specific body system or an intake assessment form and auditing phase are not synonymous with the standardized protocols needed for reimbursement in a Medicare/Medicaid-funded long-term care facility.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse would identify that a colleague needs additional instruction on standard precautions when the colleague exhibits which of the following behaviors?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because putting on a second pair of gloves over soiled gloves during a procedure violates standard precautions by increasing contamination risk. Here's the rationale: 1. Standard precautions require removing soiled gloves before putting on new ones to prevent cross-contamination. 2. Wearing multiple gloves increases the risk of tearing and exposure to pathogens. 3. This behavior shows a lack of understanding of proper infection control practices. Summary of other choices: A: Wearing face protection, gloves, and a gown when irrigating a wound is a correct practice. B: Washing hands with waterless antiseptic after removing soiled gloves is correct. D: Placing a used needle and syringe in a puncture-resistant container without capping the needle is incorrect, but not as severe as choice C.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse knows of several patients who have achieved adequate control of their allergy symptoms using over-the-counter antihistamines. Antihistamines would be contraindicated in the care of which patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Antihistamines are generally considered safe during pregnancy, but it is recommended to avoid unnecessary medications, especially in the third trimester. Antihistamines should be used cautiously in pregnant women due to potential effects on the fetus. Choice A is incorrect because previous treatment for tuberculosis does not contraindicate the use of antihistamines. Choice C is incorrect as estrogen-replacement therapy does not interact significantly with antihistamines. Choice D is incorrect as a severe allergy to eggs does not directly contraindicate the use of antihistamines.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with HIV will be receiving care in the home setting. What aspect of self-care should the nurse emphasize during discharge education?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Importance of personal hygiene. Maintaining good personal hygiene is crucial for patients with HIV to prevent infections. This includes regular handwashing, oral care, and bathing. By emphasizing personal hygiene, the nurse can help the patient reduce the risk of opportunistic infections. Prophylactic antibiotics (choice A) are important but should be prescribed by the healthcare provider. Signs and symptoms of wasting syndrome (choice C) are significant, but focusing on prevention through hygiene is more practical. Adjusting antiretroviral dosages (choice D) is the responsibility of the healthcare provider, not the patient.
Question 8 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with erectile dysfunction; the cause has been determined to be psychogenic. The patients interdisciplinary plan of care should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Psychotherapy. In the case of psychogenic erectile dysfunction, the underlying cause is psychological rather than physical. Psychotherapy helps address the mental health factors contributing to the condition, such as anxiety or relationship issues. It can help the patient understand and manage their emotions, thoughts, and behaviors related to the dysfunction. Penile implant (A) and PDE-5 inhibitors (B) are more appropriate for physical causes of erectile dysfunction. Physical therapy (C) focuses on musculoskeletal conditions and would not be effective for psychogenic causes.
Question 9 of 9
Rh incompatibility can occur if the patient is Rh-negative and the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. If fetal blood enters the mother's circulation during pregnancy or childbirth, the mother's immune system can produce antibodies against Rh-positive red blood cells, leading to potential harm to future pregnancies. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Rh incompatibility does not occur when the fetus is Rh-negative, the father is Rh-positive, or both the father and fetus are Rh-negative.