ATI RN
Concepts for Nursing Practice 3rd Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is providing care to a client who has experienced several episodes of angina. Which agent does the nurse anticipate being ordered to reduce the intensity and frequency of an angina episode?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nitrates are commonly prescribed for the management of angina. These agents work by dilating blood vessels, which leads to improved blood flow to the heart muscle and decreased workload on the heart. This results in reduced intensity and frequency of angina episodes by increasing oxygen supply to the heart and decreasing its demand. Nitrates can be administered sublingually, orally, or topically to provide prompt relief of chest pain during an angina episode. Thorough patient education should be provided regarding the proper use of nitrates and potential side effects.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is providing care to a client who has experienced several episodes of angina. Which agent does the nurse anticipate being ordered to reduce the intensity and frequency of an angina episode?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nitrates are commonly prescribed for the management of angina. These agents work by dilating blood vessels, which leads to improved blood flow to the heart muscle and decreased workload on the heart. This results in reduced intensity and frequency of angina episodes by increasing oxygen supply to the heart and decreasing its demand. Nitrates can be administered sublingually, orally, or topically to provide prompt relief of chest pain during an angina episode. Thorough patient education should be provided regarding the proper use of nitrates and potential side effects.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who was involved in a motor vehicle accident and has lost approximately 1,550 mL of blood. The nurse should recognize that the client's shock will be classified as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Class III hemorrhagic shock typically involves the loss of 1,500-2,000 mL of blood, which aligns closely with the approximately 1,550 mL of blood lost by the client in this scenario. Class III shock is considered severe and can lead to significant physiological consequences, including decreased blood pressure, increased heart rate, altered mental status, and potential organ dysfunction. Therefore, based on the amount of blood loss and severity of symptoms, the client's shock would be classified as Class III.
Question 4 of 9
A client is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec) for treatment of heart failure. Which adverse effect should the nurse assess for following the initial administration of this drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. One of the potential adverse effects of ACE inhibitors, including enalapril, is hypotension or low blood pressure. This is especially a concern following the initial administration of the drug, as it can cause a significant drop in blood pressure. Nurses should assess the patient for signs and symptoms of hypotension, such as dizziness, light-headedness, weakness, or fainting, after starting enalapril therapy. Monitoring blood pressure regularly and educating the patient about the possibility of low blood pressure is important to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.
Question 5 of 9
After being diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease, an adult patient asks if current children are at risk for developing the disorder. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder that can be inherited by children if one or both parents have the gene mutation responsible for the condition. In cases where a parent has been diagnosed with PKD, their children are at risk of inheriting the faulty gene. As such, it is recommended for the children to undergo genetic testing and screening to identify any evidence of the disease early on. By identifying the gene mutation in the children, appropriate monitoring and management can be initiated, potentially leading to better outcomes and quality of life for the affected individuals. Therefore, genetic testing and screening are crucial in cases where there is a known genetic component to a disorder like PKD.
Question 6 of 9
A 14-year-old child was recently diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. During a follow-up appointment, the mother asks the nurse, "How will this affect my child's ability to play football in the fall?" How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Children diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy should not participate in competitive sports such as football due to the potential risk of sudden cardiac events. Physical activity and sports with lower intensity may be allowed, but organized competitive sports with high intensity (such as football) are generally contraindicated. It is important for the health care team to prioritize the child's safety and well-being over sports participation in cases of cardiomyopathy. The nurse should communicate this information to the mother to help her understand the importance of limiting the child's physical activities to reduce the risk of complications related to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy. Which finding would require immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure of 142/92 mmHg in a client in the third trimester of pregnancy is elevated and could indicate the development of preeclampsia, a serious hypertensive disorder that can have adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure accompanied by signs of organ damage, such as proteinuria and changes in other laboratory values. Immediate intervention is required in this situation, as preeclampsia can lead to complications such as seizures (eclampsia), stroke, and placental abruption. It is essential for the nurse to further assess the client and notify the healthcare provider promptly for appropriate management.
Question 8 of 9
What is the most accurate tool for assessing and diagnosing venous thrombosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Duplex venous ultrasonography is the most accurate tool for assessing and diagnosing venous thrombosis. It is a non-invasive imaging technique that combines Doppler flow studies with conventional ultrasonography. This allows for the visualization of blood flow in the veins and identification of any blood clots or obstructions. Duplex venous ultrasonography is highly sensitive and specific for detecting deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the lower extremities, making it the preferred imaging modality for diagnosing venous thrombosis. Other imaging modalities like ascending contrast venography, magnetic resonance imaging, and plethysmography are less commonly used due to their disadvantages compared to duplex venous ultrasonography such as invasiveness, cost, and lower accuracy.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a compound, open fracture of the femur is scheduled for immediate surgery. Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate in the immediate postoperative period?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Given that the patient has a compound, open fracture of the femur and is undergoing immediate surgery, the most critical nursing diagnosis in the immediate postoperative period would be the risk for infection. Open fractures are particularly susceptible to infection due to the exposure of the fracture site to external contaminants. Postoperative care should prioritize infection prevention measures like sterile dressing changes, administration of prophylactic antibiotics, and close monitoring for signs of infection such as increased pain, redness, swelling, or drainage from the wound. Mitigating the risk of infection is crucial to prevent complications and promote optimal healing of the fracture. While the other diagnoses are relevant, addressing the risk for infection takes precedence in this scenario.