ATI RN
Current Issues in Maternal-Newborn Nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is providing care to a 72-year-old female patient. While providing care, the nurse instructs the patient to slowly rise from a sitting or prone position. What is the pathophysiological reason for this instruction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: As people age, their baroreceptor sensitivity decreases, making them more prone to orthostatic hypotension, especially when changing positions quickly. Orthostatic hypotension is a significant concern in the elderly population as it can lead to falls and injuries. By instructing the patient to rise slowly from a sitting or prone position, the nurse is helping to prevent a rapid drop in blood pressure that can occur with sudden position changes. This precaution is particularly important in elderly patients to minimize the risk of falls and subsequent injuries.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is admitting a patient to the labor and birth unit in early labor that was sent to the facility following a checkup with her health care provider in the office. The patient is a gravida 1, para 0, and is at term. No health issues are discerned from the initial assessment, and the nurse prepares to initiate physician orders based on standard procedures. Which action by the nurse manager is warranted in this situation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is admitting a patient based on orders initiated by the physician during an office visit. Given that the patient is in early labor and has no discernible health issues, the nurse manager should intervene and ask the nurse to clarify the admission orders directly with the physician. It is important to ensure clarity and accuracy when carrying out physician orders, especially in situations where there may be ambiguity or room for misinterpretation. By verifying the orders with the physician, the nurse can help prevent any potential errors or miscommunications that may impact the patient's care.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is admitting a patient to the labor and birth unit in early labor that was sent to the facility following a checkup with her health care provider in the office. The patient is a gravida 1, para 0, and is at term. No health issues are discerned from the initial assessment, and the nurse prepares to initiate physician orders based on standard procedures. Which action by the nurse manager is warranted in this situation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is admitting a patient based on orders initiated by the physician during an office visit. Given that the patient is in early labor and has no discernible health issues, the nurse manager should intervene and ask the nurse to clarify the admission orders directly with the physician. It is important to ensure clarity and accuracy when carrying out physician orders, especially in situations where there may be ambiguity or room for misinterpretation. By verifying the orders with the physician, the nurse can help prevent any potential errors or miscommunications that may impact the patient's care.
Question 4 of 5
The telephone triage nurse receives a call from a patient who is 5 days postoperative total abdominal hysterectomy. The patient states that her pain is not relieved with the medications and that she has noticed blood in her urine. The nurse instructs the patient to report immediately to the emergency department. What does the nurse suspect as the surgical complication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this situation where the patient is 5 days postoperative total abdominal hysterectomy and experiencing pain that is not relieved with medications, the nurse should suspect a possible hemorrhage from the internal incision. Although some pain is expected postoperatively, severe or worsening pain that is not relieved with medications can indicate a complication such as internal bleeding. Immediate medical attention is needed to assess and manage any potential hemorrhage to prevent further complications or adverse outcomes. Other signs of internal bleeding may include symptoms such as increasing abdominal distention, tachycardia, hypotension, and signs of shock.
Question 5 of 5
A 48-year-old female patient presents to the OB/GYN clinic for her annual examination. She states that she has had the following symptoms: mood swings, irregular menstrual cycles, forgetfulness, food cravings, and a decrease in libido. Which of the following does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Perimenopause is the transitional period leading to menopause that usually begins in a woman's 40s but can start earlier. During this phase, women may experience symptoms such as mood swings, irregular menstrual cycles, forgetfulness, food cravings, and a decrease in libido, as described by the patient in this case. These symptoms are caused by hormonal fluctuations as the ovaries start to produce less estrogen in preparation for menopause. Menopause occurs when a woman has not had a menstrual period for 12 consecutive months. Postmenopause, on the other hand, refers to the stage after menopause, where menopausal symptoms have generally subsided. The symptoms described by the patient are more indicative of the perimenopausal stage rather than pregnancy, as they are typical signs of hormonal changes associated with the menopausal transition.