The nurse is providing care for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When describing the process of respiration the nurse explains how oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the pulmonary capillaries and the alveoli. The nurse is describing what process?

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ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse is providing care for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When describing the process of respiration the nurse explains how oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the pulmonary capillaries and the alveoli. The nurse is describing what process?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diffusion. In respiration, oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the alveoli and pulmonary capillaries through the process of diffusion. Here's the rationale: 1. Diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. 2. In the alveoli, oxygen moves from the air (higher concentration) into the blood (lower concentration) and carbon dioxide moves from the blood (higher concentration) into the air (lower concentration). 3. This exchange occurs passively, without the need for energy input, which is characteristic of diffusion. Summary of other choices: B: Osmosis involves the movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane, not gas exchange. C: Active transport requires energy input to move molecules against their concentration gradient, not seen in gas exchange. D: Filtration involves the movement of molecules through a membrane under pressure, not the passive movement of gases in respiration.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse is assessing the patient for the presence of a Chvosteks sign. What electrolyte imbalance would a positive Chvosteks sign indicate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Chvostek's sign is a facial muscle spasm induced by tapping the facial nerve in hypocalcemia. Step 2: Hypocalcemia causes increased neuromuscular excitability, leading to Chvostek's sign. Step 3: Hyperkalemia (choice D) causes muscle weakness, not muscle spasm. Step 4: Hyponatremia (choice B) affects osmolarity, not neuromuscular excitability. Step 5: Hypermagnesemia (choice A) causes muscle weakness, not muscle spasm.

Question 3 of 9

The baroreceptors, located in the left atrium and in the carotid and aortic arches, respond to changes in the circulating blood volume and regulate sympathetic and parasympathetic neural activity as well as endocrine activities. Sympathetic stimulation constricts renal arterioles, causing what effect?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decrease in glomerular filtration. Sympathetic stimulation constricts renal arterioles, leading to decreased blood flow to the kidneys. This reduction in blood flow decreases the glomerular filtration rate, impacting the kidney's ability to filter blood and produce urine. The constriction of renal arterioles does not directly affect the release of aldosterone (choice A), filtration in the Loop of Henle (choice B), or the reabsorption of sodium (choice C). The primary effect of sympathetic stimulation on renal arterioles is to decrease glomerular filtration by reducing blood flow to the kidneys.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for hypertension. For which acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess to prevent complications of this therapy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Metabolic alkalosis. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion and metabolic alkalosis due to excessive loss of chloride and hydrogen ions. The nurse should assess for signs of metabolic alkalosis such as confusion, muscle weakness, and dysrhythmias to prevent complications. Respiratory acidosis and alkalosis are not directly related to furosemide therapy. Metabolic acidosis is less likely due to furosemide's mechanism of action.

Question 5 of 9

. You are caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Your patients plan of care includes assessment of specific gravity every 4 hours. The results of this test will allow the nurse to as

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fluid volume status. Assessment of specific gravity helps to determine the concentration of solutes in the urine, indicating the degree of hydration or dehydration. In SIADH, there is water retention leading to diluted urine, resulting in low specific gravity. Monitoring specific gravity every 4 hours is crucial in assessing the patient's fluid volume status and response to treatment. A: Nutritional status is not directly assessed by specific gravity. B: Potassium balance is not directly assessed by specific gravity. C: Calcium balance is not directly assessed by specific gravity.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing excessive diarrhea. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.28, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. Which provider order should the nurse expect to receive?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq diluted in 1 L of D5W. In this case, the client is experiencing metabolic acidosis due to low HCO3 levels (16 mEq/L) with a low pH (7.28). Sodium bicarbonate helps correct metabolic acidosis by increasing the HCO3 levels. Furosemide (A) is a diuretic and can worsen the client's electrolyte imbalance. Mechanical ventilation (C) is not indicated for metabolic acidosis. Indwelling urinary catheter (D) does not address the underlying acid-base imbalance. Therefore, the nurse should expect the provider to order sodium bicarbonate to correct the metabolic acidosis.

Question 7 of 9

You are caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pancreatitis. The patient was admitted from a homeless shelter and is a vague historian. The patient appears malnourished and on day 3 of the patients admission total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has been started. Why would you know to start the infusion of TPN slowly?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malnourished patients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk for hypophosphatemia if calories are started too aggressively. Patient with pancreatitis may have depleted levels of phosphorus due to malnutrition, and rapid initiation of TPN can further decrease phosphorus levels, leading to hypophosphatemia. This can result in respiratory failure, muscle weakness, and arrhythmias. Choice A is incorrect because patients receiving TPN are not specifically at risk for hypercalcemia due to rapid initiation of calories. Choice C is incorrect because rapid fluid infusion can lead to hypernatremia, not related to TPN initiation. Choice D is incorrect because the rationale provided for slow initiation is not related to digestive enzymes but rather to prevent hypophosphatemia in malnourished patients.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse assesses a client who is admitted with an acid-base imbalance. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.32, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 34 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess clients rate, rhythm, and depth of respiration. The arterial blood gas values indicate a respiratory acidosis due to low pH and low PaCO2. The nurse should assess the respiratory status to determine if the client is hypoventilating, which is causing the retention of CO2 and subsequent acidosis. Assessing the rate, rhythm, and depth of respiration will help determine if the client requires immediate intervention such as oxygen therapy, mechanical ventilation, or respiratory treatment. Choice B is incorrect because measuring pulse and blood pressure does not directly address the underlying cause of the acid-base imbalance. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should take immediate action to address the imbalance rather than passively monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as immediate intervention is needed to address the respiratory acidosis.

Question 9 of 9

A nurse assesses a client who has a radial artery catheter. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Presence of an ulnar pulse. This is the most important assessment to complete first because the presence of an ulnar pulse indicates adequate circulation in the hand, ensuring that the radial artery catheter is not compromising blood flow. If the ulnar pulse is absent, it may signify impaired circulation and potential complications such as ischemia. Choice A is incorrect because the amount of pressure in the fluid container is not directly related to the assessment of the radial artery catheter. Choice B is incorrect because the date of catheter tubing change is important for infection control but not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as the percent of heparin in the infusion container is important for anticoagulation therapy but does not take precedence over assessing circulation in the hand.

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