ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is providing care for a patient who has experienced a type I hypersensitivity reaction. What condition is an example of such a reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaphylactic reaction after a bee sting. Type I hypersensitivity reactions involve an immediate response triggered by exposure to an allergen, leading to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. In this case, a bee sting would introduce an allergen, causing a rapid and severe systemic reaction, known as anaphylaxis. B: Skin reaction resulting from adhesive tape is an example of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction, mediated by T cells, not IgE antibodies as in Type I reactions. C: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder involving antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors, not a Type I hypersensitivity reaction. D: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder involving immune complexes and inflammatory responses, not a Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
Question 2 of 9
A patient who has been experiencing numerous episodes of unexplained headaches and vomiting has subsequently been referred for testing to rule out a brain tumor. What characteristic of the patients vomiting is most consistent with a brain tumor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's vomiting is unrelated to food intake. In the context of a brain tumor, vomiting that is not related to food intake can indicate increased intracranial pressure affecting the brain's vomiting center. This is known as projectile vomiting. A: Vomiting accompanied by epistaxis (nosebleeds) is more indicative of other conditions like hypertension or nasal issues, not necessarily specific to a brain tumor. B: Vomiting not relieving nausea can be seen in various conditions affecting the gastrointestinal system, not specifically brain tumors. D: Blood-tinged emesis can suggest gastrointestinal bleeding or other issues, but it's not a specific characteristic of vomiting associated with brain tumors.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is admitting an oncology patient to the unit prior to surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the patient has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Impaired wound healing. Radiation therapy can lead to damage to the skin and blood vessels, affecting wound healing. The nurse should prioritize assessing the patient's skin integrity and any signs of impaired wound healing to prevent complications post-surgery. A: Cognitive deficits - While radiation therapy can impact cognitive function in some cases, it is not the most immediate concern related to surgery post-radiation therapy. C: Cardiac tamponade - Although radiation therapy can increase the risk of heart-related issues, such as pericarditis, cardiac tamponade is a rare and acute complication that is not the most likely immediate concern post-radiation therapy. D: Tumor lysis syndrome - This syndrome is more commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. It is not typically a concern immediately post-radiation therapy.
Question 4 of 9
Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teaching patients to wear sunscreen, which is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease before it occurs by addressing risk factors. In this case, teaching patients to wear sunscreen helps prevent skin cancer by reducing exposure to harmful UV rays. Yearly Pap tests (A) are a secondary prevention measure for cervical cancer, detecting precancerous changes. Testicular self-examination (B) is a form of secondary prevention for testicular cancer, aiming to detect any abnormalities early. Screening mammograms (D) are also a secondary prevention measure for breast cancer, detecting tumors at an early stage.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is teaching a nutrition class about the different daily values. When teaching about the referenced daily intakes (RDIs), which information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because referenced daily intakes (RDIs) provide values for protein, vitamins, and minerals essential for maintaining health. RDIs do not focus solely on fat, cholesterol, and fiber percentages (B). RDIs are different from recommended daily allowances (RDAs) but do not replace them (C). RDIs are not specifically used to develop diets for chronic illnesses requiring a specific calorie intake (D).
Question 6 of 9
For which of the following population groups would an annual clinical breast examination be recommended?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Women over age 40. Annual clinical breast examinations are recommended for this population group because they have an increased risk of developing breast cancer compared to younger age groups. Regular screenings starting at age 40 can help in early detection and improve survival rates. A: Women over age 21 - This age group is generally recommended to start clinical breast examinations every 1-3 years, not necessarily annually. B: Women over age 25 - While it's important to be vigilant about breast health, the risk of breast cancer increases with age, making annual exams more crucial for older women. D: All post-pubescent females with a family history of breast cancer - While family history is a risk factor, the recommendation for annual clinical breast examinations typically begins at age 40, regardless of family history.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is planning health education for a patient who has experienced a vaginal infection. What guidelines should the nurse include in this program regarding prevention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid feminine hygiene products, such as sprays. This is because feminine hygiene products can disrupt the natural balance of vaginal flora, leading to an increased risk of vaginal infections. Tight-fitting synthetic underwear (choice A) can trap moisture and promote bacterial growth. Using bubble bath (choice B) can irritate the genital area and disrupt the pH balance. Restricting daily bathing (choice D) is not recommended as regular hygiene practices are important for preventing infections. In summary, choice C is correct as it promotes maintaining the natural vaginal flora and pH balance to prevent infections, while the other choices can contribute to an increased risk of vaginal infections.
Question 8 of 9
A patient has experienced occasional urinary incontinence in the weeks since his prostatectomy. In order to promote continence, the nurse should encourage which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pelvic floor exercises. Pelvic floor exercises help strengthen the muscles that control urination, promoting continence. These exercises can improve bladder control and reduce urinary incontinence post-prostatectomy. Intermittent urinary catheterization (B) may lead to increased risk of infection. Reduced physical activity (C) can weaken pelvic floor muscles, worsening incontinence. Active range of motion exercises (D) do not directly address urinary incontinence.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is ready to be discharged home after a cataract extraction with intraocular lens implant and the nurse is reviewing signs and symptoms that need to be reported to the ophthalmologist immediately. Which of the patients statements best demonstrates an adequate understanding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I need to call the doctor if I see flashing lights." This is because seeing flashing lights after cataract extraction with intraocular lens implant can be a sign of a serious complication like retinal detachment. Prompt reporting is crucial to prevent vision loss. Choice A is incorrect because nausea is not typically a sign of a complication related to cataract surgery. Choice B is also incorrect as a light morning discharge is normal post-surgery unless it's excessive or associated with pain or visual changes. Choice C is incorrect as a scratchy feeling is common after surgery and usually resolves on its own.