ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is providing care for a patient who has experienced a type I hypersensitivity reaction. What condition is an example of such a reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaphylactic reaction after a bee sting. Type I hypersensitivity reactions involve an immediate response triggered by exposure to an allergen, leading to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. In this case, a bee sting would introduce an allergen, causing a rapid and severe systemic reaction, known as anaphylaxis. B: Skin reaction resulting from adhesive tape is an example of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction, mediated by T cells, not IgE antibodies as in Type I reactions. C: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder involving antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors, not a Type I hypersensitivity reaction. D: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder involving immune complexes and inflammatory responses, not a Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has sought care, stating that she developed hives overnight. The nurses inspection confirms the presence of urticaria. What type of allergic hypersensitivity reaction has the patient developed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction involves the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils, leading to symptoms like hives. It is characterized by the involvement of IgE antibodies. In this case, the patient developed hives quickly after exposure to the allergen, indicating an immediate hypersensitivity reaction typical of Type I. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are associated with different mechanisms and timeframes of hypersensitivity reactions. Type II involves antibody-mediated cell destruction, Type III involves immune complex deposition, and Type IV is a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells, none of which are consistent with the rapid onset of hives seen in this patient.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assessing the health care disparitiesamong population groups. Which area is the nurse monitoring?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Accessibility of health care services. The nurse is monitoring disparities in access to healthcare services among different population groups. This is important as it can influence health outcomes and the prevalence of complications. Outcomes of health conditions (B) are impacted by access to care. Prevalence of complications (C) and incidence of diseases (D) can also be influenced by disparities in accessing healthcare services. However, the primary focus of the nurse's assessment in this scenario is on the accessibility of healthcare services as a key factor contributing to health care disparities.
Question 4 of 9
While reviewing the health history of an older adult experiencing hearing loss the nurse notes the patient has had no trauma or loss of balance. What aspect of this patients health history is most likely to be linked to the patients hearing deficit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Previous perforation of the eardrum. A perforated eardrum can lead to hearing loss as it affects the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear. This is the most likely link to the patient's hearing deficit as trauma or injury to the eardrum can directly impact hearing. Incorrect choices: A: Recent completion of radiation therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer - Radiation therapy for thyroid cancer typically does not directly affect hearing. B: Routine use of quinine for management of leg cramps - Quinine use is associated with tinnitus (ringing in the ears) but not typically with hearing loss. C: Allergy to hair coloring and hair spray - Allergy to hair products is not directly related to hearing loss. In summary, the most likely cause of the patient's hearing deficit based on the health history provided is the previous perforation of the eardrum, as it directly affects the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is beginning an antiretroviral drug regimen shortly after being diagnosed with HIV. What nursing action is most likely to increase the likelihood of successful therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Addressing possible barriers to adherence. This is crucial because adherence to the antiretroviral drug regimen is key for successful therapy in HIV patients. By identifying and addressing barriers such as medication side effects, cost, or forgetfulness, nurses can help patients stay on track with their treatment. Other choices are incorrect: A: Promoting complementary therapies is not the priority in initiating antiretroviral therapy. Adherence to the prescribed regimen is more critical. C: Educating about the pathophysiology of HIV is important, but it may not directly impact the success of the therapy as much as addressing adherence barriers. D: While follow-up blood work is necessary, it is not as immediate and impactful as addressing adherence barriers at the beginning of therapy.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is orienting a new nurse to the oncology unit. When reviewing the safe administration of antineoplastic agents, what action should the nurse emphasize?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle. This is crucial to prevent exposure to potentially harmful substances. Here's the rationale: 1. Antineoplastic agents are hazardous chemicals that can harm individuals and the environment. 2. Proper disposal in a hazardous waste receptacle ensures safety and compliance with regulations. 3. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as adjusting doses based on symptoms, hand hygiene, and personal protective equipment are important but not as critical as proper disposal of hazardous waste in this context.
Question 7 of 9
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most common cause of retinal inflammation in patients with AIDS. What drug, surgically implanted, is used for the acute stage of CMV retinitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Ganciclovir is the correct answer for the acute stage of CMV retinitis in AIDS patients. It is an antiviral drug that specifically targets CMV. Ganciclovir works by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis, effectively controlling CMV replication in the eye. Pilocarpine (A) is a miotic used for glaucoma, not for CMV retinitis. Penicillin (B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not viral infections like CMV. Gentamicin (D) is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections like CMV.
Question 8 of 9
A patient is to undergo an ultrasound-guided core biopsy. The patient tells the nurse that a friend of hers had a stereotactic core biopsy. She wants to understand the differences between the two procedures.What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an ultrasound-guided core biopsy is indeed faster, less expensive, and does not use radiation. - "Faster": Ultrasound-guided biopsies are typically quicker compared to stereotactic biopsies, as they are performed in real-time using ultrasound imaging. - "Less expensive": Ultrasound-guided biopsies are generally more cost-effective than stereotactic biopsies due to the equipment and resources required. - "Does not use radiation": Unlike stereotactic biopsies which involve the use of X-rays for guidance, ultrasound-guided biopsies do not expose the patient to radiation, making them safer in that aspect. The other choices are incorrect because they either inaccurately state that ultrasound-guided biopsies use radiation (C), take more time (D), or imply a slight increase in cost without highlighting the key advantages of speed and lack of radiation (B).
Question 9 of 9
One aspect of the nurses comprehensive assessment when caring for the terminally ill is the assessment of hope. The nurse is assessing a patient with liver failure for the presence of hope. What would the nurse identify as a hope-fostering category?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uplifting memories. When assessing hope in a terminally ill patient, identifying uplifting memories can foster hope by providing emotional support, positive experiences, and a sense of purpose. Memories can inspire optimism and comfort in difficult times. B: Ignoring negative outcomes is incorrect as it does not address the patient's emotional needs or promote coping strategies. C: Envisioning one specific outcome is incorrect because hope should encompass a range of possibilities, not just one specific outcome. D: Avoiding an actual or potential threat is incorrect as it focuses on avoidance rather than on promoting positive emotions and psychological well-being.