ATI RN
Maternal Fetal Monitoring Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is presenting a conference on gene dominance. What does the nurse report as the percentage of children carrying the dominant gene if one parent has a dominant gene and the other parent does not?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of gene dominance, understanding the principles of inheritance is crucial. When one parent carries a dominant gene and the other parent does not, the dominant gene will be expressed in the offspring. This is because dominant genes mask the expression of recessive genes. Therefore, the correct answer is C) 50%. Option A) 10% is incorrect because, in this scenario, the dominant gene will be expressed in 50% of the offspring, not just 10%. Option B) 25% is incorrect as well because it represents the percentage of offspring who would carry two recessive genes if both parents were carriers of the recessive gene. Option D) 100% is incorrect because if one parent does not carry the dominant gene, then it is not possible for all children to carry the dominant gene. In an educational context, comprehending gene dominance is fundamental for healthcare professionals, especially in pharmacology and genetics. Understanding how genes are inherited is vital for predicting the likelihood of certain traits or genetic conditions being passed down through generations. This knowledge is essential for providing informed genetic counseling to patients and making decisions about treatment options based on genetic factors.
Question 2 of 5
A pregnant patient’s biophysical profile score is 8. The patient asks the nurse to explain the results. What is the nurse’s most appropriate response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate response for the nurse to provide to the pregnant patient in this scenario is option A) The test results are within normal limits. This response is correct because a biophysical profile score of 8 is considered normal. A biophysical profile assesses the baby's well-being by evaluating factors such as fetal heart rate, fetal movement, breathing movements, muscle tone, and the amount of amniotic fluid. Option B) Immediate birth by cesarean birth is being considered is incorrect because a score of 8 does not typically warrant immediate delivery. Option C) Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score is also incorrect as a score of 8 is generally considered reassuring and does not typically require additional testing. Option D) An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding birth is incorrect as immediate action is not necessary based on the provided score. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the interpretation of biophysical profile scores to provide accurate information and reassurance to pregnant patients. Clear communication with patients about test results can help alleviate anxiety and ensure they are well-informed about their pregnancy status.
Question 3 of 5
Which factors should be considered a contraindication for transcervical chorionic villus sampling?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Transcervical chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a prenatal diagnostic procedure used to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus. The correct answer is D) Positive for group B Streptococcus, as this is a contraindication for CVS due to the risk of ascending infection. Group B Streptococcus can lead to complications such as chorioamnionitis and preterm labor, making it unsafe to perform CVS in these cases. Option A) Rh-negative mother is not a contraindication for CVS as it is not directly related to the procedure or its risks. Option B) Gestation less than 15 weeks is not a contraindication but rather a factor to consider in determining the timing of CVS, as it is typically performed between 10-13 weeks of gestation. Option C) Maternal age younger than 35 years is also not a contraindication for CVS but rather a general demographic factor that may influence the decision to undergo prenatal genetic testing. Educationally, it is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the contraindications and appropriate indications for prenatal diagnostic procedures like CVS to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes. Understanding the specific risks associated with certain conditions, such as Group B Streptococcus infection in this case, is essential in clinical decision-making and providing quality care to pregnant individuals.
Question 4 of 5
A pregnant patient has received the results of her triple-screen testing and it is positive. What would the nurse anticipate as the next step in the patient’s plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Refer to the physician for additional testing. When a pregnant patient receives a positive result on the triple-screen testing, it indicates a potential risk for certain conditions such as neural tube defects or chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. Therefore, the next step in the patient's plan of care would be to refer her to the physician for further diagnostic testing, such as amniocentesis or ultrasound, to confirm or rule out these conditions. Option A) No further testing is indicated at this time because results are normal: This option is incorrect because a positive result on the triple-screen testing signifies an abnormality that requires further investigation and is not considered normal. Option C) Validate the results with the lab facility: While it is essential to ensure result accuracy, in the case of a positive triple-screen test, validation with the lab facility is not the appropriate next step. The patient should be referred for additional diagnostic testing by the physician. Option D) Repeat the test in 2 weeks and have the patient return for her regularly scheduled prenatal visit: This option is incorrect as repeating the test in two weeks does not address the immediate need for further diagnostic testing and delays appropriate intervention if there is an issue with the pregnancy. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding the significance of positive results on prenatal screening tests and the appropriate steps to take in such situations. It emphasizes the need for timely referral and diagnostic testing to ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.
Question 5 of 5
Transvaginal ultrasonography is often performed during the first trimester. What conditions may require this test? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Transvaginal ultrasonography during the first trimester is commonly used to assess the presence and location of the pregnancy, making option C the correct answer. This is essential for confirming intrauterine pregnancy and ruling out ectopic pregnancy. Option A, multifetal gestation, is typically not diagnosed solely based on transvaginal ultrasonography in the first trimester, as it may be confirmed later in pregnancy with more clarity. Option B, bicornuate uterus, is a structural uterine anomaly that may not necessarily be detected during routine first-trimester ultrasound. Amniotic fluid volume, option D, is usually assessed in later trimesters and not a primary indication for transvaginal ultrasound in the first trimester. Understanding the indications for specific tests in maternal-fetal monitoring is crucial for healthcare providers managing pregnancy. Knowing when and why certain tests are performed ensures optimal care for both the mother and the developing fetus. The ability to interpret ultrasound findings accurately can lead to timely interventions and improved outcomes.