ATI RN
Intro to Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer phenytoin (Dilantin) to a patient who has a seizure disorder. The nurse notes that the last random serum drug level was 18 mcg/mL. What action Will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The therapeutic range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is typically 10-20 mcg/mL. A level of 18 mcg/mL is at the upper end of the therapeutic range, and the patient may be at risk for toxicity, especially if symptoms are present. Therefore, the nurse should contact the provider to discuss potentially decreasing the phenytoin dose to avoid toxicity. Monitoring levels closely and reporting any signs of toxicity are also important actions, but the immediate action should be to address the potential for toxicity by discussing a dosage adjustment with the provider.
Question 2 of 5
A patient diagnosed with alcoholism has questions about his medications. The nurse correctly explains that alcoholism can be associated with deficiency of which vitamin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
Myeloablation using chemotherapeutic agents is useful in cancer treatment because:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Myeloablation refers to the destruction of bone marrow, which is a critical step in preparing a patient for a bone marrow or stem cell transplant. This process eliminates both cancerous and healthy bone marrow cells, creating space for the transplanted cells to engraft and repopulate the marrow. While myeloablation can reduce tumor size, its primary purpose is to prepare the body for transplantation. It is not related to destroying muscle cells or reducing postoperative chemotherapy requirements.
Question 4 of 5
Combination chemotherapy is used in the treatment of cancer because:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Combination chemotherapy is used to target cancer cells through multiple mechanisms, reducing the likelihood of resistance. Single-agent therapy often leads to the development of resistant cell lines, as cancer cells can adapt to the drug. By using a combination of drugs with different mechanisms of action, the treatment can more effectively kill cancer cells and prevent resistance. While two drugs may increase efficacy, the primary rationale is to overcome resistance. Larger doses of single agents are not the main reason for combination therapy.
Question 5 of 5
An otherwise healthy 78-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 168/80 at a routine check, and similar pressures are confirmed on three separate occasions despite adhering to dietary advice. Investigations including an ECG and creatinine/electrolytes are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Systolic hypertension (168 mmHg) in the elderly increases cardiovascular risk, despite normal diastolic (80 mmHg). Echo isn't first-line without organ damage signs (normal ECG). Reassurance ignores systolic risk; treatment is indicated (>160 mmHg). Doxazosin, an alpha-blocker, is less preferred initially due to hypotension risk. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is effective, but amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is most appropriate per guidelines (e.g., NICE) for isolated systolic hypertension in the elderly, offering vascular protection and tolerability. Its efficacy reduces stroke and MI risk, critical at this age.