ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is preparing a client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule out a spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the following would pose a threat to the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The client wears a watch and wedding band. This is because metal objects such as watches and jewelry can be hazardous during an MRI scan due to the strong magnetic field, leading to potential movement or heating of the metal objects, causing harm to the client. A: The client lies still - This is important for obtaining clear images during an MRI scan and does not pose a threat to the client. C: The client asks questions - Asking questions during an MRI scan does not pose a direct threat to the client's safety. D: The client hears thumping sounds - Thumping sounds are a normal part of the MRI scan and do not pose a threat to the client's safety.
Question 2 of 9
With severe diarrhea, electrolytes as well as fluids are lost. What electrolyte imbalance is indicated in Ms. CC’s decreased muscle tone and deep tendon reflexes?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypocalcemia. Severe diarrhea can lead to electrolyte imbalances, including low calcium levels. Decreased muscle tone and deep tendon reflexes are classic signs of hypocalcemia. Calcium is essential for proper muscle function and nerve transmission. Hypernatremia (A) is high sodium levels, not related to decreased muscle tone. Hyperchloremia (B) is high chloride levels, not associated with muscle tone changes. Hypokalemia (C) is low potassium levels, which can cause muscle weakness but not specifically decreased muscle tone and deep tendon reflexes like hypocalcemia.
Question 3 of 9
Blood cells are formed in the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone marrow. Blood cells are primarily formed in the bone marrow through a process called hematopoiesis. The bone marrow contains stem cells that differentiate into various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Arterioles are small blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart, not involved in blood cell formation. Lymphoid tissue plays a role in immune function but not in blood cell production. Muscle tissue is primarily responsible for movement and does not have a role in blood cell formation. Therefore, the bone marrow is the correct answer as it is the main site of blood cell production in the body.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with a new diagnosis of lung cancer decides to have radiation therapy. Which of the ff. expectations of this treatment is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased comfort. Radiation therapy for lung cancer aims to alleviate symptoms, reduce pain, and improve quality of life. It is not typically used as a curative treatment like surgery or chemotherapy (A). It does not prevent the need for oxygen (B), as lung cancer can still affect lung function. While radiation therapy may help control the growth of cancer cells, it is not always effective in preventing cancer spread (D). Therefore, the most appropriate expectation of radiation therapy for lung cancer is increased comfort for the patient.
Question 5 of 9
24 hours after undergoing kidney transplantation, a client develops a hyperacute rejection. To correct this problem, the nurse should prepare the client for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Removal of the transplanted kidney. Hyperacute rejection is a severe and immediate immune response to the transplanted organ. In this case, the transplanted kidney must be removed promptly to prevent further complications, as it is irreversibly damaged. High-dose IV cyclosporine (B) is used for immunosuppression but is not effective in treating hyperacute rejection. Bone marrow transplant (C) is not indicated for kidney rejection. Intra-abdominal instillation of methylprednisolone sodium succinate (D) is used for acute rejection, not hyperacute rejection.
Question 6 of 9
A client with diabetes mellitus has a prescription for 5 U-100 regular insulin and 25 U of U-100 isophane insulin suspension (NPH) to be taken before breakfast. At about 4:30 p.m., the client experiences headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. What is the most probable cause of these signs and symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. At 4:30 p.m., after taking the morning insulin, the client's blood sugar may have dropped too low, leading to symptoms like headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. Regular insulin and NPH insulin peak at different times, causing a potential mismatch in insulin action, leading to hypoglycemia. Hyperglycemia (A) would present with different symptoms like increased thirst and urination. Hyperuricemia (B) is an excess of uric acid in the blood and does not typically present with these symptoms. Hypochondria (D) is a psychological condition and not related to the client's physical symptoms.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse caring for a client admitted to the intensive care unit with a stroke assesses the client’s vital signs, pupils, and orientation every few minutes. The nurse is performing which type of assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focused assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is continuously monitoring specific aspects such as vital signs, pupils, and orientation at regular intervals, which is characteristic of a focused assessment. This type of assessment allows the nurse to gather specific data related to the client's condition and respond promptly to any changes. A: Initial assessment is conducted upon admission to establish baseline data. C: Time-lapsed reassessment involves comparing current data to previous assessments over a longer period. D: Emergency assessment is performed in urgent situations to quickly identify life-threatening issues. By systematically assessing the client's vital signs, pupils, and orientation at frequent intervals, the nurse can provide timely and appropriate care in the intensive care unit setting.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle crash and suffers a right femur fracture. The leg is stabilized in a full leg cast. Otherwise, the patient has no other major injuries, is in good health, and reports only moderate discomfort. Which is the most pertinent nursing diagnosis the nurse will include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most pertinent nursing diagnosis for this patient is acute pain (Choice C). This is because the patient's right femur fracture would likely cause significant pain and discomfort, which is a priority to address for optimal recovery and comfort. Managing pain effectively is crucial in promoting healing and preventing complications. Posttrauma syndrome (Choice A) is not as immediate a concern in this scenario. While constipation (Choice B) and anxiety (Choice D) are important considerations, addressing acute pain takes precedence in the initial plan of care to ensure the patient's comfort and well-being.
Question 9 of 9
Nursing intervention during the lumbar puncture procedure includes:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Monitoring Mrs. GC's color, pulse, and respiration is important to assess for any signs of distress during the procedure. Step 2: Labeling all laboratory specimens in numerical order ensures accurate identification and prevents errors in specimen handling. Step 3: Positioning Mrs. GC on her side with knees drawn up to her chest helps maintain proper spinal alignment and reduces the risk of complications. Summary: Option D is correct because all the interventions mentioned are crucial for ensuring patient safety and procedural success. Options A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they each address only one aspect of the procedure, whereas the correct answer encompasses all necessary interventions.