ATI RN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is preparing a client for a scheduled cesarean delivery. What is the priority preoperative instruction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Empty your bladder before the procedure. This is the priority preoperative instruction because a full bladder can increase the risk of complications during surgery, such as injury to the bladder or difficulties in catheter insertion. It is essential to ensure the bladder is empty to provide a clear surgical field and prevent urinary retention postoperatively. Explanation for other choices: A: Eating a high-protein meal before surgery is not recommended as it can increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. C: Avoiding brushing teeth on the morning of surgery is not a priority instruction. Maintaining oral hygiene is important, but it does not directly impact the surgical procedure. D: Refraining from taking prescribed medications should be discussed with the healthcare provider, as certain medications may need to be taken even on the day of surgery to prevent complications.
Question 2 of 5
A client at 12 weeks' gestation reports nausea and vomiting. What is the best dietary advice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consume small, frequent meals throughout the day. This advice helps manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy by preventing an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Eating small, frequent meals helps stabilize blood sugar levels and provides a steady source of nutrients for the developing fetus. It also reduces the likelihood of triggering nausea by avoiding large meals. Drinking fluids with meals (choice B) may exacerbate symptoms by filling up the stomach too quickly. Eating three large meals a day (choice A) can lead to overeating and may worsen nausea. Avoiding protein-rich foods (choice D) is not recommended as protein is essential for fetal development and overall health during pregnancy.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is monitoring a client with severe preeclampsia. What finding requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Deep tendon reflexes +4. In severe preeclampsia, increased reflexes indicate possible progression to eclampsia with seizures. Immediate intervention is needed to prevent seizures. Choice A is not urgent unless higher proteinuria levels are present. Choice B is within normal range. Choice D is concerning but not as urgent as managing potential seizures.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with suspected preterm labor. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Magnesium sulfate. This medication is commonly prescribed for preterm labor to relax the uterine muscles and prevent contractions. It helps delay labor and reduce the risk of preterm birth. Methyldopa (B) is used for managing hypertension, not preterm labor. Rho(D) immune globulin (C) is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent hemolytic disease in newborns. Oxytocin (D) is used to induce or augment labor, not for suspected preterm labor. Therefore, A is the most appropriate choice for managing preterm labor.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client in labor with ruptured membranes. What finding suggests umbilical cord prolapse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Variable decelerations on the fetal monitor. This finding suggests umbilical cord prolapse because the cord can become compressed during contractions, leading to variable decelerations. It is a serious complication that requires immediate intervention to prevent fetal distress. A: Clear amniotic fluid is a normal finding after rupture of membranes. C: Contractions every 2 minutes may indicate tachysystole, but not specifically cord prolapse. D: Maternal blood pressure is not directly related to cord prolapse.