ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is planning care for a client with damage to the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. What should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Damage to the vestibular area affects balance and may cause nausea. Therefore, the nurse should include assistance with ambulation in the care plan to help the client maintain stability while walking. Regular hearing tests (choice B) are not directly related to damage in the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. While nausea (choice C) may occur due to vestibular damage, monitoring for it alone is not as essential as providing assistance with ambulation. Vision assessments (choice D) are important for assessing visual function but are not the priority when dealing with vestibular issues.
Question 2 of 5
What assessment is the nurse performing when a client is asked to stand with feet together, eyes open, and hands by the sides, and then asked to close the eyes while the nurse observes for a full minute?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Romberg test. The Romberg test is used to assess balance and proprioception. During the test, the client is asked to stand with feet together, eyes open, and hands by the sides to observe their balance. Then, the client is asked to close their eyes while the nurse continues to observe for a full minute. This test helps in detecting any issues with proprioception and balance, which may be compromised in conditions affecting the nervous system. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Weber test is used to assess hearing in each ear, the Rinne test is used to compare air and bone conduction of sound, and the Babinski test is used to assess the integrity of the corticospinal tract.
Question 3 of 5
Two people experience the same stressor yet only one is able to cope and adapt adequately. An example of the person with an increased capacity to adapt is the one with:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A strong sense of purpose in life is associated with better stress coping mechanisms, which can enhance a person's capacity to adapt. Having a clear sense of purpose provides individuals with motivation, direction, and resilience to face challenges. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to an increased capacity to adapt to stress. Circadian rhythm disruption, age-related renal dysfunction, and excessive weight gain or loss may have negative impacts on overall well-being and stress management.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.
Question 5 of 5
A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.