ATI RN
Nursing a Concept Based Approach to Learning Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a stroke. Which intervention would support the client's sensorimotor needs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Supporting a stroke client's sensorimotor needs involves encouraging independence and rehabilitation of the affected side. By encouraging the use of the nonaffected arm for self-care activities like feeding, bathing, and dressing, the nurse is promoting sensorimotor development and function in the affected arm. This intervention will help the client regain strength, coordination, and functionality in the affected arm, which is crucial for their overall recovery and independence. Encouraging the client to actively engage the affected arm promotes neuroplasticity and can improve motor function over time.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with an epiphyseal fracture. What bone classification should the nurse keep in mind when planning this patient’s care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An epiphyseal fracture involves the distal or proximal epiphysis of a long bone, such as the femur, tibia, or humerus. Long bones are characterized by having a long shaft with distinct ends (epiphyses). The epiphysis is the site of bone growth and plays a crucial role in bone development. Therefore, understanding the classification of the bone as long helps the nurse in providing appropriate care for the patient with an epiphyseal fracture, such as monitoring growth plate involvement and ensuring proper immobilization for healing.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is planning care for a newly admitted client diagnosed with pulmonary embolism (PE). The nurse anticipates the client will need anticoagulant therapy. What is true regarding this therapy for the treatment of this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Anticoagulant therapy, specifically heparin, is commonly used as the initial treatment for pulmonary embolism (PE) because it inhibits the formation of additional clots by altering the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Heparin works quickly and can be administered intravenously to rapidly prevent the clot from growing in size. Warfarin, another anticoagulant, is generally started after heparin therapy is initiated to provide long-term anticoagulation. Major hemorrhage is a potential side effect of anticoagulant therapy, but it is not considered common. The initiation of heparin and warfarin (Coumadin) at the same time is not standard practice due to the differing mechanisms of action and monitoring required for each medication. Anticoagulant therapy is considered first-line treatment for PE, not second-line.
Question 4 of 9
Which best describes how congenital defects are categorized?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Congenital defects are categorized according to the pathophysiology and hemodynamics of the defect. This means that defects are grouped based on the underlying mechanisms that lead to the defect and how these abnormalities impact the flow of blood or other bodily functions. This classification allows healthcare providers to better understand the nature of the defect and tailor treatment plans accordingly. It helps in determining the best course of action, whether it be medical management, surgical intervention, or monitoring for potential complications. By categorizing congenital defects in this way, healthcare providers can provide more targeted and effective care for affected individuals.
Question 5 of 9
A pregnant client is diagnosed with HELLP syndrome. Based on this diagnosis, which laboratory findings are consistent with diagnosis of HELLP?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HELLP syndrome is a serious complication of pregnancy characterized by Hemolysis (H), Elevated Liver enzymes (EL), and a Low Platelet count (LP). Therefore, the correct laboratory finding consistent with the diagnosis of HELLP syndrome is hemolysis. This can be indicated by an elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level, low haptoglobin, elevated bilirubin, and the presence of schistocytes on a blood smear. The other options (A, C, and D) do not align with the classic presentation of HELLP syndrome.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has been experiencing diarrhea for the past week. What should the nurse do first when caring for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The first action that the nurse should take when caring for a patient experiencing diarrhea is to ask the patient to describe the number and character of daily stools. This assessment is crucial in determining the severity and possible cause of the diarrhea. By understanding the frequency and consistency of the stools, the nurse can evaluate if the diarrhea is due to an infection, a reaction to medications, dietary factors, or other underlying health issues. Based on this assessment, appropriate interventions can then be implemented, which may include further diagnostic tests, fluid replacement therapy, dietary modifications, or medication administration. It is essential to gather this information first before considering other interventions such as abstaining from oral intake or using over-the-counter antidiarrheal medications.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a stroke. Which intervention would support the client's sensorimotor needs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Supporting a stroke client's sensorimotor needs involves encouraging independence and rehabilitation of the affected side. By encouraging the use of the nonaffected arm for self-care activities like feeding, bathing, and dressing, the nurse is promoting sensorimotor development and function in the affected arm. This intervention will help the client regain strength, coordination, and functionality in the affected arm, which is crucial for their overall recovery and independence. Encouraging the client to actively engage the affected arm promotes neuroplasticity and can improve motor function over time.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 76-year-old client with a history of angina. What atypical age- related warning sign of a myocardial infarction should the nurse need to include in client teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In older adults, particularly those over 65 years of age, atypical symptoms of a myocardial infarction may occur. Abdominal pain is considered an atypical age-related warning sign because older adults may present with subtle or nonspecific symptoms, such as discomfort or pain in the abdomen, rather than the classic chest pain associated with a heart attack. This atypical presentation can lead to delays in seeking medical attention and diagnosis, which can have serious consequences for the client. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to educate older clients about the possibility of experiencing atypical symptoms, such as abdominal pain, in the context of a myocardial infarction.
Question 9 of 9
A client states to the nurse, "I know I have high blood pressure, but I don't want to take medication." Based on this data, which health problem is the client at risk for developing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: High blood pressure, also known as hypertension, is a significant risk factor for the development of cardiomyopathy. Cardiomyopathy is a condition where the heart muscle becomes weakened or enlarged, affecting its ability to pump blood effectively. If left untreated, high blood pressure can lead to chronic stress on the heart muscle, ultimately causing cardiomyopathy. The client's reluctance to take medication for high blood pressure puts them at an increased risk of developing cardiomyopathy due to the continued strain on the heart over time. It is essential for the client to understand the potential consequences of uncontrolled hypertension and to work with healthcare providers to find a suitable treatment plan to manage their blood pressure effectively and prevent the development of cardiomyopathy.