The nurse is performing an otoscopic examination on an adult. Which of the following is true?

Questions 46

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

NCLEX Practice Questions Health Assessment Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse is performing an otoscopic examination on an adult. Which of the following is true?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pull the pinna up and back before inserting the speculum. This is because pulling the pinna up and back straightens the auditory canal, allowing for easier and more accurate insertion of the speculum without causing discomfort or injury. Option A is incorrect as tilting the head forward may obstruct the view. Option B is incorrect as maintaining traction is essential for stability. Option D is incorrect as using the smallest speculum may not provide a clear view or proper insertion depth.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following cranial nerves (CNs) is responsible for conducting nerve impulses to the brain from the organ of Corti?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: CN VIII. The vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) is responsible for conducting nerve impulses from the organ of Corti in the inner ear to the brain. This nerve specifically carries auditory information to the brainstem and auditory cortex for processing. Choice A (CN I) is incorrect as it is the olfactory nerve responsible for smell. Choice B (CN III) is incorrect as it is the oculomotor nerve responsible for eye movement. Choice D (CN XI) is incorrect as it is the accessory nerve responsible for neck and shoulder movements.

Question 3 of 9

When performing an assessment of a 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease, the nurse notices bilateral pitting edema in the lower legs. The skin is puffy and tight but of normal colour. There is no increased redness or tenderness, and the peripheral pulses are equal and strong. In this situation, which of the following is the most likely cause of the edema?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart failure. In this case, the most likely cause of the bilateral pitting edema in the lower legs is heart failure. The pitting edema along with the history of hypertension and coronary artery disease suggests fluid overload due to the heart's inability to pump effectively. The normal skin color, absence of redness or tenderness, and strong peripheral pulses indicate that the edema is not caused by venous thrombosis, local inflammation, or blockage of lymphatic drainage. In heart failure, fluid can accumulate in the lower extremities due to the heart's reduced ability to pump blood efficiently, leading to increased pressure in the veins and subsequent fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues.

Question 4 of 9

During a well-baby checkup, the mother expresses concern that her 2-month-old infant is not able to hold her head up when she is pulled to a sitting position. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Head control typically develops around 4 months, so it is normal for a 2-month-old to lack this skill. 2. Reassuring the mother that her baby is within the normal developmental range is important for reducing parental anxiety. 3. Avoiding overly alarming responses helps maintain trust and open communication with the parent. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the mother's concern and may come across as dismissive. - Choice C is incorrect as it may unnecessarily worry the mother and lead to undue stress. - Choice D is incorrect as it introduces a serious and unlikely scenario without evidence at this stage of development.

Question 5 of 9

During an examination of a female patient, the nurse observes lymphadenopathy and suspects an acute infection. Acutely infected lymph nodes would be:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: clumped. Acutely infected lymph nodes typically present as clumped due to inflammation and enlargement of multiple nodes in close proximity. This clustering is a result of the immune response to the infection. Choice B: unilateral is incorrect as lymphadenopathy in acute infection can be unilateral or bilateral. Choice C: firm but freely movable is incorrect as acutely infected lymph nodes are usually tender and may not be freely movable due to inflammation. Choice D: hard and nontender is incorrect as acutely infected lymph nodes are usually tender and may not be hard.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following physiological changes is responsible for presbyopia?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, loss of lens elasticity. Presbyopia is the age-related loss of near vision due to the lens becoming less flexible, making it harder to focus on close objects. With aging, the lens loses its ability to change shape, affecting near vision. Other choices are incorrect because presbyopia is primarily related to changes in the lens, not the cornea (A), adaptation to darkness (C), or distance vision abilities (D).

Question 7 of 9

A woman in her second trimester of pregnancy mentions that since becoming pregnant she has had"more nosebleeds than ever." The nurse recognizes that this is due to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased vascularity in the upper respiratory tract as a result of the pregnancy. During pregnancy, hormonal changes lead to increased blood flow in the body, including the nasal passages, causing them to become more sensitive and prone to bleeding. This explains why the woman is experiencing more nosebleeds. Incorrect Choices: A: coagulation problems in the patient - This is incorrect as pregnancy is associated with hypercoagulability rather than coagulation problems. C: increased susceptibility to colds and nasal irritation - While pregnancy can lower immunity, this does not directly cause nosebleeds. D: inappropriate use of nasal sprays - This is not relevant to the situation described and does not explain the increased nosebleeds due to pregnancy.

Question 8 of 9

When assessing inflammation in a dark-skinned person, the nurse may need to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Dark skin may not show cyanosis well, making choice A less reliable. Step 2: Erythema refers to redness, which may not be easily visible in dark skin, making choice B less suitable. Step 3: Palpating for edema and increased warmth allows for a more reliable assessment of inflammation in dark skin, making choice C the correct answer. Step 4: Palpating for tenderness and ecchymosis may be useful but not specific to inflammation assessment in dark skin, making choice D less relevant.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following is an expected normal finding in the diagnostic positions test?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: A slight amount of lid lag when moving the eyes from a superior position to an inferior position. In the diagnostic positions test, when the eyes move from an extreme superior position to an inferior position, a slight amount of lid lag is expected due to the normal anatomical structure and mechanics of the eye muscles and eyelids. This lag is a normal finding and not indicative of any underlying pathology. Rationale: A: Convergence of vision in both eyes is not a normal finding in the diagnostic positions test as convergence refers to the inward movement of both eyes towards each other to maintain single binocular vision. B: Parallel movement of both eyes is not a specific finding in the diagnostic positions test. The test is designed to assess the movement of the eyes in different directions. C: Nystagmus in extreme superior gaze is not a normal finding and indicates an abnormality in eye movement coordination, not an expected finding in the diagnostic positions test.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days