ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is performing an assessment on a 21-year-old patient and notes that his nasal mucosa appears pale, grey, and swollen. What would be the most appropriate question to ask the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Are you aware of having any allergies?" This question is appropriate because the patient's symptoms of pale, grey, and swollen nasal mucosa suggest an allergic reaction. By asking about allergies, the nurse can gather important information to determine the cause of the symptoms. B: "Do you have an elevated temperature?" - This question is not directly related to the patient's nasal symptoms and does not address the likely allergic reaction. C: "Have you had any symptoms of a cold?" - While cold symptoms may present similarly to allergies, the patient's specific symptoms of pale, grey, and swollen nasal mucosa are more indicative of an allergic reaction. D: "Have you been having frequent nosebleeds?" - This question does not directly address the patient's current symptoms and is not likely related to the nasal mucosa appearance described.
Question 2 of 9
A physician tells the nurse that a patient's vertebra prominens is tender and asks the nurse to reevaluate the area in 1 hour. The area of the body the nurse will assess will be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: at the level of the C7 vertebra. The vertebra prominens refers to the spinous process of the C7 vertebra, which is the most prominent bony landmark at the base of the neck. Assessing this area allows the nurse to accurately locate and evaluate tenderness reported by the physician. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the location of the vertebra prominens. Option A is too high, above the diaphragm; option B is too low, lateral to the knee cap; and option D is too low, at the level of the T11 vertebra.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following about a newborn infant is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the frontal sinuses are indeed fairly well developed at birth. This is true as the frontal sinuses start developing around the age of 7-8 years but are present in a rudimentary form at birth. This is because the frontal bone grows rapidly in the first few years of life, allowing for the development of the frontal sinuses. Choice A is incorrect because the sphenoid sinuses are not at full size at birth; they continue to develop throughout childhood. Choice B is incorrect as the maxillary sinuses reach full size around the teenage years, not after puberty. Choice D is incorrect as the frontal sinuses are also present at birth, along with the maxillary and ethmoid sinuses.
Question 4 of 9
During an assessment, a patient says that she was diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma 2 years ago. There are various types of glaucoma, such as open-angle glaucoma and closed-angle glaucoma. Which of the following are characteristics of open-angle glaucoma? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It is the most common type of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is indeed the most common type, accounting for about 90% of all glaucoma cases. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open, but the trabecular meshwork becomes blocked over time. This leads to increased intraocular pressure, which can damage the optic nerve and result in vision loss. A, C, and D are incorrect: A: The symptoms mentioned (sensitivity to light, nausea, halos around lights) are more commonly associated with acute angle-closure glaucoma, not open-angle glaucoma. C: Immediate treatment is not necessarily needed for open-angle glaucoma as it progresses slowly, and treatment can vary based on the severity of the condition. D: Vision loss in open-angle glaucoma typically starts with the loss of peripheral vision, not central vision.
Question 5 of 9
During an examination, the nurse finds that a patient's left temporal artery is more tortuous and feels hardened and tender compared with the right temporal artery. What condition does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Temporal arteritis. Temporal arteritis is characterized by inflammation of the temporal arteries, leading to symptoms such as tenderness, hardness, and tortuosity. The left temporal artery being more affected than the right is a common presentation. Crepitation (choice A) refers to a crackling sound or sensation, typically associated with bone or joint abnormalities, not arterial inflammation. Mastoiditis (choice B) is an infection of the mastoid bone behind the ear, not related to temporal arteries. Bell's palsy (choice D) is a condition affecting facial nerves, not arteries.
Question 6 of 9
When performing an otoscopic examination on a 5-year-old child with a history of chronic ear infections, the nurse sees that his right tympanic membrane is amber-yellow in colour and there are air bubbles behind the tympanic membrane. The child reports occasional hearing loss and a popping sound with swallowing. The preliminary analysis based on this information would be that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: this is most likely serous otitis media. In a child with chronic ear infections, amber-yellow tympanic membrane color and air bubbles suggest fluid accumulation behind the eardrum, characteristic of serous otitis media. The occasional hearing loss and popping sound with swallowing are also common symptoms. Serous otitis media is a non-infectious condition caused by Eustachian tube dysfunction. Choice B: Acute purulent otitis media presents with more severe symptoms like fever and severe ear pain, which are not mentioned in the case. Choice C: Cholesteatoma is a more serious condition characterized by a cyst-like growth in the middle ear, not just fluid accumulation as seen in this case. Choice D: Perforation typically presents with a visible hole in the eardrum and is not consistent with the findings of fluid and air bubbles in this case.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse suspects that a patient has hyperthyroidism, and laboratory data also indicate that the patient's T and T hormone levels are elevated. Which of the following would the nurse most likely find on 4 3 examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A (Tachycardia) is correct: 1. Hyperthyroidism leads to increased production of thyroid hormones. 2. Thyroid hormones can increase metabolic rate and heart rate. 3. Tachycardia is a common symptom of hyperthyroidism due to increased metabolic demand. 4. Therefore, the nurse would most likely find tachycardia on examination in a patient with hyperthyroidism. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Constipation - Constipation is more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. C: Rapid dyspnea - Dyspnea (shortness of breath) is not a typical symptom of hyperthyroidism. D: Atrophied, nodular thyroid - Hyperthyroidism often presents with an enlarged, not atrophied, thyroid gland due to overactivity. Nodules may be present in conditions like thyroid cancer, but not specific to hyper
Question 8 of 9
The papule on the nose of a 52-year-old woman has rounded, pearly borders and a central red ulcer. She tells the nurse that it has been present for several months and is slowly growing larger. Which of the following conditions does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basal cell carcinoma. The clinical presentation of a papule with rounded, pearly borders, central red ulcer, slow growth, and location on the nose is highly indicative of basal cell carcinoma. Basal cell carcinoma commonly presents with these characteristics and is the most common type of skin cancer. It is locally invasive but rarely metastasizes. A: Acne is a common skin condition characterized by comedones, papules, and pustules, not typically presenting with the described features. C: Malignant melanoma usually presents as an asymmetric, irregularly bordered, multicolored lesion with rapid growth and potential for metastasis. D: Squamous cell carcinoma typically presents as a scaly, crusted lesion with potential for metastasis, not showing the described features.
Question 9 of 9
A 32-year-old woman is at the clinic for a checkup, and she states,"I have little white bumps in my mouth." During the assessment, the nurse notes that she has a 5-cm white, nontender papule under her tongue and one on the mucosa of her right cheek. Which of the following would the nurse tell the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Fordyce's granules are small, yellow-white or flesh-colored spots that are sebaceous glands and commonly found on the oral mucosa. They are benign and do not require treatment. In this case, the patient's description matches the characteristics of Fordyce's granules. Option A is incorrect because strep throat typically presents with other symptoms like sore throat and fever, not white bumps in the mouth. Option B is incorrect as there is no indication of a serious lesion based on the description given. Option C is incorrect as leukoplakia is a condition associated with chronic irritation, not Fordyce's granules.