ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is performing an assessment on a 21-year-old patient and notes that his nasal mucosa appears pale, grey, and swollen. What would be the most appropriate question to ask the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Are you aware of having any allergies?" This question is appropriate because the patient's symptoms of pale, grey, and swollen nasal mucosa suggest an allergic reaction. By asking about allergies, the nurse can gather important information to determine the cause of the symptoms. B: "Do you have an elevated temperature?" - This question is not directly related to the patient's nasal symptoms and does not address the likely allergic reaction. C: "Have you had any symptoms of a cold?" - While cold symptoms may present similarly to allergies, the patient's specific symptoms of pale, grey, and swollen nasal mucosa are more indicative of an allergic reaction. D: "Have you been having frequent nosebleeds?" - This question does not directly address the patient's current symptoms and is not likely related to the nasal mucosa appearance described.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is brought by ambulance to the emergency department with multiple injuries received in an automobile accident. He is alert and cooperative, but his injuries are quite severe. How should the nurse proceed with the data collection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient with severe injuries is brought to the emergency department, the nurse should prioritize performing a physical examination and initiating lifesaving measures while asking history questions simultaneously. This approach allows for immediate assessment and intervention to address any life-threatening conditions. Gathering history information while performing the examination ensures that critical details are not missed and helps in making timely decisions. Choosing option A could delay lifesaving interventions, while option C is not a priority during the initial assessment of a critically injured patient. Option D is incorrect as it prioritizes lifesaving measures over obtaining important history information during the initial assessment.
Question 3 of 9
What is the first step in the management of a client with acute renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with acute renal failure is to administer IV fluids (Choice A). This is crucial to ensure adequate hydration and maintain renal perfusion. By administering IV fluids, you can help improve kidney function and prevent further damage. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important but comes after addressing the fluid balance with IV fluids. Performing a CT scan (Choice C) is not typically the initial step in managing acute renal failure as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate condition. Administering diuretics (Choice D) can worsen the condition by further reducing kidney function, so it is not the recommended first step.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about self-management. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because using the inhaler every time the patient feels short of breath, even without a flare-up, is not the recommended practice for managing COPD. Inhalers should be used as prescribed by the healthcare provider or only during exacerbations. Here's the rationale: 1. Using the inhaler excessively can lead to overuse of medication and potential side effects. 2. It is important for patients to differentiate between regular management and acute exacerbations. 3. Monitoring oxygen levels (choice D) is essential for COPD management. 4. Quitting smoking (choice A) and deep breathing exercises (choice B) are positive self-management strategies for COPD.
Question 5 of 9
During an examination, the nurse finds that a patient's left temporal artery is more tortuous and feels hardened and tender compared with the right temporal artery. What condition does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Temporal arteritis. Temporal arteritis is characterized by inflammation of the temporal arteries, leading to symptoms such as tenderness, hardness, and tortuosity. The left temporal artery being more affected than the right is a common presentation. Crepitation (choice A) refers to a crackling sound or sensation, typically associated with bone or joint abnormalities, not arterial inflammation. Mastoiditis (choice B) is an infection of the mastoid bone behind the ear, not related to temporal arteries. Bell's palsy (choice D) is a condition affecting facial nerves, not arteries.
Question 6 of 9
What is important when making an occupied bed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use a bath blanket for warmth and privacy. This is important when making an occupied bed to ensure the comfort and dignity of the patient. The bath blanket provides warmth and privacy during the bed-making process, maintaining the patient's comfort and respecting their privacy. Keeping the bed in a low position (choice A) is important for safety but not directly related to the patient's comfort during bed-making. Constantly raising side rails (choice C) is unnecessary and may cause discomfort to the patient. Moving back and forth between sides (choice D) is not essential for making an occupied bed and may disrupt the process.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with a history of hypertension about lifestyle changes. Which of the following lifestyle modifications should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because reducing alcohol consumption and limiting sodium intake are both crucial lifestyle modifications for managing hypertension. Alcohol can raise blood pressure, while excess sodium can contribute to hypertension. By prioritizing these changes, the patient can better control their blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can worsen hypertension due to fluid retention. Choice C is incorrect as decreasing physical activity can lead to weight gain and worsen hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as processed foods are often high in sodium and unhealthy fats, which can negatively impact blood pressure.
Question 8 of 9
What is the first priority for a client with suspected sepsis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer IV fluids. In sepsis, early fluid resuscitation is crucial to prevent hypotension and organ dysfunction. IV fluids help restore perfusion and stabilize the client. Administering antibiotics (choice B) is important but comes after fluid resuscitation. Performing a blood culture (choice C) is essential but not the first priority. Performing an abdominal assessment (choice D) is not directly related to managing sepsis and should not be the initial priority.
Question 9 of 9
What is the first priority for a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer corticosteroids. In a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction, the first priority is to address potential inflammation in the myocardium. Corticosteroids help reduce inflammation and stabilize the myocardium, which is crucial in preventing further damage post-myocardial infarction. Administering nitroglycerin (A) is important for vasodilation, but it is typically used after corticosteroids. Morphine (B) and analgesics (C) may provide pain relief but do not address the underlying inflammation. Administering corticosteroids is the most appropriate first step to manage myocardial inflammation and protect the heart tissue.