The nurse is performing a focused genitourinary and the flank and lower abdomen. The patient is being renal assessment of a patient. Where should the nurse assessed for renal calculi. The nurse recognizes that the assess for pain at the costovertebral angle? stone is most likely in what anatomic location?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ureter. The nurse should assess for pain at the costovertebral angle to check for renal calculi because the ureters connect the kidneys to the bladder and flank pain at this angle can indicate ureteral obstruction from a renal stone. Assessing at the umbilicus (choice A) or meatus (choice B) would not provide information specific to renal calculi. Assessing at the bladder (choice C) would be more relevant for bladder issues, not renal calculi.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stress incontinence. This type of incontinence is characterized by leakage of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as sneezing, coughing, or laughing. In this case, the woman is experiencing urine loss specifically when she sneezes, which aligns with the definition of stress incontinence. Other choices are incorrect because urinary frequency (choice A) refers to a frequent need to urinate, enuresis (choice B) is involuntary urination during sleep, and urge incontinence (choice D) is the sudden, strong need to urinate followed by involuntary leakage.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Epididymitis. The key features that point towards epididymitis in this case include sudden onset severe scrotal pain, tenderness in the scrotal area, difficulty in distinguishing the epididymis from the testis, and thick, edematous scrotal skin. Epididymitis is inflammation of the epididymis typically caused by a bacterial infection. The pain is often relieved by elevation due to reduced pressure. Varicocele (A) is a painless swelling of the veins in the scrotum. Spermatocele (C) is a benign cyst containing sperm that is usually painless. Testicular torsion (D) presents with sudden, severe testicular pain but does not typically involve difficulty in differentiating between the epididymis and testis or edematous scrotal skin.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluconazole. Fluconazole is the drug of choice for treating and preventing *cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS patients due to its excellent CNS penetration and efficacy. It is preferred over Amphotericin B due to its better safety profile and tolerability. Flucytosine is not used as monotherapy and is often combined with other antifungals. Ketoconazole is not recommended for cryptococcal meningitis due to poor CNS penetration.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vancomycin. Red man syndrome is a hypersensitivity reaction caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin. Vancomycin infusion releases histamine, leading to flushing, rash, and hypotension. Clindamycin (B), Cefoperazone (C), and Piperacillin (D) are not associated with red man syndrome. Clindamycin can cause pseudomembranous colitis, Cefoperazone can cause bleeding disorders, and Piperacillin can cause hypersensitivity reactions, but not red man syndrome.