ATI RN
Maternal Newborn Nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is monitoring a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. What finding indicates the need to discontinue the infusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to respiratory depression, which can progress to respiratory arrest if not addressed promptly. Therefore, discontinuing the infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Option A (urine output of 50 mL/hour) is not a reason to discontinue the infusion as it falls within the expected range for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Option C (blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg) is also not an immediate concern in the context of preeclampsia management. Option D (deep tendon reflexes +3) is a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and does not indicate the need to discontinue the infusion unless accompanied by other signs of magnesium toxicity. Educationally, understanding the signs of magnesium toxicity is vital for nurses caring for clients on magnesium sulfate therapy. Respiratory rate monitoring, along with other assessments, is critical to early identification of magnesium toxicity, allowing for prompt intervention to ensure client safety.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks' gestation who reports sharp abdominal pain and heavy vaginal bleeding. What condition should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Abruptio placentae. Abruptio placentae is a serious obstetric complication where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before delivery. The symptoms of sharp abdominal pain and heavy vaginal bleeding described by the client are classic signs of abruptio placentae, indicating a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent maternal and fetal complications such as hemorrhage and fetal distress. Option B) Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, not sharp abdominal pain as in this case. Preterm labor, option C, typically presents with regular uterine contractions and cervical changes, rather than sharp abdominal pain and bleeding. Option D) Chorioamnionitis is an infection of the fetal membranes and amniotic fluid, which usually presents with fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, not necessarily sharp abdominal pain and heavy bleeding. Educationally, it is crucial for nurses to understand the distinguishing features of obstetric emergencies like abruptio placentae to provide timely and appropriate care to pregnant individuals. Recognizing the signs and symptoms, as well as understanding the potential risks associated with each condition, enables nurses to quickly assess and intervene in critical situations to optimize outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
Question 3 of 5
A client at 35 weeks' gestation with polyhydramnios is being monitored for complications. What condition is the client at increased risk for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Umbilical cord prolapse. Polyhydramnios, an excessive amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus, can increase the risk of umbilical cord prolapse. When there is too much amniotic fluid, the baby has more room to move around, which can lead to the umbilical cord slipping through the cervix before the baby during birth, cutting off blood flow and oxygen. Placental abruption (B) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall and is not directly associated with polyhydramnios. Fetal growth restriction (C) is a condition where a baby does not grow at the expected rate and is not typically linked to polyhydramnios. Gestational diabetes (D) is a condition of elevated blood sugar during pregnancy and is not directly related to polyhydramnios. In the context of maternal newborn nursing, understanding the implications of polyhydramnios is crucial for monitoring and managing maternal and fetal well-being. Educating healthcare providers on these associations helps in early identification and intervention to prevent potential complications during labor and delivery.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is preparing a client for a nonstress test. What instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of a nonstress test for monitoring fetal well-being, option B, "Press the button whenever you feel the baby move," is the correct instruction for the nurse to provide. This is because during a nonstress test, the primary goal is to assess the baby's heart rate in relation to its movements. When the mother feels fetal movement, she should press a button to mark the event, allowing healthcare providers to correlate fetal heart rate accelerations with movements, indicating a healthy fetal response. Option A, "Avoid eating or drinking before the test," is incorrect because there is no need to fast for a nonstress test. In fact, it is beneficial for the mother to have eaten to potentially increase fetal movement during the test. Option C, "Lie flat on your back during the test," is also incorrect. It is recommended that the mother be in a comfortable position during the test, which can include sitting or reclining, as long as she can feel the baby's movements and reach the button easily. Option D, "Expect contractions to occur during the test," is incorrect as well. A nonstress test does not induce contractions; its purpose is solely to monitor fetal heart rate in response to movement. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind each instruction is crucial for nurses caring for pregnant women undergoing fetal monitoring tests. Providing accurate instructions ensures the safety and well-being of both the mother and the unborn baby, emphasizing the importance of proper patient education in maternal newborn nursing practice.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has expressed interest in receiving an implant for contraception. Which statements by the patient show that she understands the teaching given to her about her procedure and medication? Select one that does not apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The implant provides long-term contraception for 3 years, so the patient should understand it is a long-term method. Choice A is correct, and the patient must be aware of this. Choice B is correct, as the procedure involves a minor surgical process, and the patient will need someone to drive them home. Choice C is correct because irregular bleeding is a common side effect of the implant. Choice D is incorrect, as the implant does not provide STI protection.