The nurse is making a preoperative education appointment with a patient. The patient asks if a family member should come to the appointment. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The best response is C: "We recommend including family members at this appointment." This answer is correct because involving family members can provide emotional support, facilitate better understanding of preoperative instructions, and enhance communication among healthcare team, patient, and family. Choice A is incorrect as family support can be beneficial. Choice B is less ideal as it suggests family members just wait instead of actively participating. Choice D is incorrect as it is not a requirement to have a family member present.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct approach is to wait for responding police to control the situation and confirm it is safe for EMS. This is the safest option because entering a potentially unsafe scene without police clearance could put the EMS provider at risk. The safety of the EMS provider is paramount, and responding to a scene without police presence could escalate the situation and endanger both the provider and the patient. Waiting for police to secure the scene ensures a safe environment for providing medical care. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Waiting for police to arrive and then entering with them does not guarantee scene safety. C: Driving up to the driveway exposes the EMS provider to potential danger without police clearance. D: Heading into the house without police presence is extremely risky and violates protocol for safety and scene control.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The intravenous administration of 2-4 mg of morphine per a medical-control physician's order. Morphine helps reduce cardiac preload and afterload by dilating blood vessels and reducing the workload on the heart. This leads to decreased oxygen demand and improved perfusion to the heart muscle. Choice B is incorrect because controlling specific dysrhythmias does not directly reduce cardiac preload and afterload. Choice C, sublingual nitroglycerin, primarily works by dilating coronary arteries and reducing cardiac afterload, but it may not directly reduce preload. Choice D, high-flow oxygen therapy, may be beneficial for oxygenation but does not directly address preload and afterload reduction.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Diphenhydramine is the correct answer because it is an anticholinergic medication that can block acetylcholine receptors, which helps alleviate dystonia symptoms. Promethazine (A) is an antihistamine and does not target acetylcholine receptors. Morphine sulfate (B) is an opioid analgesic and is not used for dystonia. Lidocaine (C) is a local anesthetic and is not indicated for treating dystonia. Therefore, Diphenhydramine (D) is the most appropriate choice for reversing the signs and symptoms of dystonia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Transcutaneous pacing. In a patient with second-degree type II AV heart block and hemodynamic instability, transcutaneous pacing is the most appropriate intervention. This is because it directly stimulates the heart to maintain an adequate heart rate when other measures like atropine have failed. Synchronized cardioversion (choice B) is not indicated for bradycardia. Epinephrine (choice A) may worsen the AV block and increase the risk of ventricular arrhythmias. Administering a large IV bolus of normal saline (choice D) may not address the underlying conduction abnormality and could potentially worsen the patient's condition. Transcutaneous pacing is the most effective intervention to stabilize the patient's heart rate and improve perfusion in this scenario.