ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is leading a workshop on sexual health for men. The nurse should teach participants that organic causes of erectile dysfunction include what? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetes. Erectile dysfunction can be caused by organic factors, such as diabetes, which affects blood flow and nerve function. Diabetes can lead to damage of blood vessels and nerves, impacting the ability to achieve and maintain an erection. Testosterone deficiency (choice B) can also contribute to erectile dysfunction, but it is not an organic cause. Anxiety (choice C) and depression (choice D) are psychological factors that can lead to erectile dysfunction, not organic causes. Parkinsonism (choice E) can affect sexual function, but it is not a common organic cause of erectile dysfunction.
Question 2 of 9
A blood-soaked peripad weighs 900 g. The nurse would document a blood loss of _____ mL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (900 mL) because the weight of 900 g corresponds to a blood loss of the same amount in milliliters. Blood density is close to that of water, so 1 g ≈ 1 mL. Therefore, a blood-soaked peripad weighing 900 g indicates a blood loss of 900 mL. Choice A (1800 mL) is incorrect as it doubles the weight instead of converting it to milliliters. Choice B (450 mL) is incorrect as it halves the weight. Choice D (90 mL) is incorrect as it divides the weight by 10, which is too small for the blood loss indicated.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's symptoms of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain are classic signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating a significant increase in blood pressure and potential progression to eclampsia (seizures). Immediate medical intervention is crucial to prevent complications. A: Gastrointestinal upset does not explain the combination of symptoms presented. B: Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia but does not cause these specific symptoms. C: Anxiety does not typically present with the specific physical symptoms mentioned.
Question 4 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nausea and vomiting. Chemotherapy commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea and vomiting, due to its impact on rapidly dividing cells in the digestive tract. This adverse effect can significantly impact a patient's quality of life and adherence to treatment. Pruritis (A), itching, is less common and usually not a primary side effect of chemotherapy. Altered glucose metabolism (C) is a potential effect of some chemotherapeutic agents but is not the most common adverse effect. Confusion (D) is not typically associated with chemotherapy and is more commonly seen with other medications or medical conditions.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is being discharged home after mastoid surgery. What topic should the nurse address in the patients discharge education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: After mastoid surgery, patients may experience pain and dizziness, hence addressing the safe use of analgesics and antivertiginous agents is crucial for symptom management. Step 2: Analgesics help in managing post-operative pain, while antivertiginous agents help control dizziness, reducing the risk of falls. Step 3: Educating the patient on safe use ensures proper pain and symptom management, preventing complications. Step 4: Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address immediate post-operative care needs such as pain and dizziness management.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is creating a care plan for a patient suffering from allergic rhinitis. Which of the following outcomes should the nurse identify?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Improved coping with lifestyle modifications. This outcome is appropriate for a patient with allergic rhinitis as it focuses on helping the patient manage the condition through lifestyle changes, such as avoiding allergens and using medications as prescribed. By improving coping skills, the patient can better manage symptoms and reduce the impact of allergic rhinitis on daily life. Rationale: 1. A: Appropriate use of prophylactic antibiotics is not relevant for allergic rhinitis, which is not typically treated with antibiotics. 2. B: Safe injection of corticosteroids is not a primary treatment for allergic rhinitis and may not be necessary for all patients. 3. C: Improved skin integrity is not a priority outcome for allergic rhinitis, as it primarily affects the respiratory system, not the skin. Summary: Improving coping with lifestyle modifications is the most relevant outcome for a patient with allergic rhinitis, as it addresses the management of symptoms and overall quality of
Question 7 of 9
The nurse notes that a patient has a history of fibroids and is aware that this term refers to a benign tumor of the uterus. What is a more appropriate term for a fibroid?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Leiomyoma. A leiomyoma is the medical term for a fibroid, which is a benign tumor of the uterus composed of smooth muscle tissue. This term is more appropriate as it specifically refers to fibroids. A: Bartholins cyst is a fluid-filled swelling in the Bartholin's gland, not related to fibroids. B: Dermoid cyst is a type of ovarian cyst containing tissues like hair, teeth, and skin, not related to fibroids. C: Hydatidiform mole is an abnormal growth of tissue in the uterus that forms during pregnancy, not related to fibroids.
Question 8 of 9
A patient on the medical unit is dying and the nurse has determined that the familys psychosocial needs during the dying process need to be addressed. What is a cause of many patient care dilemmas at the end of life?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial of imminent death on the part of the family or the patient. This is a common cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life because denial can lead to unrealistic expectations, difficulty in making important decisions, and inadequate planning for end-of-life care. This can result in unnecessary suffering for the patient and added stress for the family. Incorrect choices: A: Poor communication between the family and the care team can contribute to challenges in providing appropriate care but may not be the primary cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life. C: Limited visitation opportunities for friends and family, while important for psychosocial support, may not directly cause patient care dilemmas. D: Conflict between family members can complicate decision-making processes, but it is not necessarily a primary cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is sitting at the patient’s bedside takinga nursing history. Which zone of personal space is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse sitting at the patient's bedside is using the personal zone of personal space, which ranges from 18 inches to 4 feet. This distance allows for a close interaction suitable for taking a nursing history while maintaining a professional yet personal connection. The socio-consultative zone (A) is 4-12 feet, more appropriate for professional interactions. The intimate zone (C) is 0-18 inches, too close for an initial nursing history. The public zone (D) is 12 feet or more, too distant for a personal conversation.