The nurse is interviewing a patient with a hearing deficit. Which area should the nurse use to conduct this interview?

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Question 1 of 9

The nurse is interviewing a patient with a hearing deficit. Which area should the nurse use to conduct this interview?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because conducting the interview in a quiet environment, like the waiting area with the television turned off, reduces background noise and distractions for the patient with a hearing deficit. This allows for better communication and understanding. A: Conducting the interview in the patient's room with the door closed may still have distractions or noise from outside the room. C: Conducting the interview in the patient's room before administration of pain medication does not address the issue of reducing background noise for better communication. D: Conducting the interview in the waiting room while the occupational therapist is working on leg exercises introduces additional distractions and noise, making it harder for the patient with a hearing deficit to communicate effectively.

Question 2 of 9

A 78 year old male has been working on his lawn for two days, although the temperature has been above 90 degree F. he has been on thiazide diuretics for hypertension. His lab values are K 3.7 mEq/L, Na 129 mEq/L, Ca 9 mg/dl, and Cl 95 mEq/L. What would be a priority action for this man?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for fatigue, muscle weakness, restlessness, and flushed skin. The patient is at risk for dehydration due to the combination of high temperature, age, and thiazide diuretic use. Thiazide diuretics can lead to electrolyte imbalances, including hypokalemia, which can cause symptoms such as muscle weakness and fatigue. Monitoring for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is crucial in this scenario to prevent complications. A: Making sure he drinks 8 glasses of water a day is not the priority as he is already at risk for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. C: Hyperchloremia is not a common concern in this scenario based on the given lab values. D: Neurologic changes may occur in severe cases of electrolyte imbalances but monitoring for physical symptoms such as fatigue and muscle weakness is more relevant at this stage.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is evaluating the goal of acceptance of body image in a young teenage girl. Which statement made by the patient is the best indicator of progress toward the goal?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it shows a positive self-perception and self-acceptance. By choosing the dress based on how it complements her eyes, the patient demonstrates a focus on her own preferences and self-image rather than external validation or criticism. This indicates progress towards accepting her body image. A: Choice A indicates concern about others' opinions, which shows a lack of self-assurance and reliance on external validation. B: Choice B reflects negative body image and self-criticism, indicating a lack of acceptance. D: Choice D is focused on a future event, suggesting avoidance or delay in addressing the current body image issues.

Question 4 of 9

Management of the foregoing patient should include:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a regular diet with extra fruits and green vegetables can provide essential nutrients for overall health, potassium-sparing diuretics can help manage potassium levels in the body, and discontinuing oral magnesium salts can prevent further complications in the patient. Option A focuses on promoting a healthy diet, B addresses specific medication for potassium management, and C avoids potential interactions with magnesium salts. Therefore, all of the measures (A, B, and C) are necessary for comprehensive management of the patient's condition.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following is an intraoperative outcome for a patient undergoing an inguinal hernia repair?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintains skin integrity. During inguinal hernia repair surgery, maintaining skin integrity is crucial to prevent infection and ensure proper wound healing. This outcome focuses on the physical aspect of the surgery and reflects the patient's skin condition postoperatively. Verbalizing fears (A) addresses emotional concerns, demonstrating leg exercises (B) is related to postoperative rehabilitation, and explaining deep breathing exercises (D) targets respiratory function, none of which directly assess the intraoperative outcome of skin integrity.

Question 6 of 9

Immunity to a disease after recovery is possible because the first exposure to the pathogen has stimulated the formation of which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Memory cells. After recovery from a disease, memory cells are formed as part of the adaptive immune response. These memory cells "remember" the pathogen and can mount a quicker and stronger immune response upon re-exposure. This results in immunity to the disease. Antigens (choice A) are substances that trigger the immune response but do not provide immunity on their own. Complement (choice B) is a group of proteins that enhance the immune response but do not directly lead to immunity. Natural killer cells (choice D) are part of the innate immune system and are not responsible for the specific memory response needed for immunity.

Question 7 of 9

Patients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome should be closely monitored. Which of the ff. parameters is most important to be checked regularly for acute complications?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: ABG. Monitoring ABG in Guillain-Barre Syndrome patients is crucial as they are at risk for respiratory complications like respiratory failure due to muscle weakness. ABG provides information on oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base balance. Regular monitoring helps detect early signs of respiratory distress and guide appropriate interventions. A: BUN and creatinine are important for assessing renal function, but they do not directly relate to acute complications in Guillain-Barre Syndrome. B: Hgb and Hct are markers for anemia, which is not a common acute complication in Guillain-Barre Syndrome. D: Serum potassium levels are important, but ABG monitoring takes precedence in patients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome due to the risk of respiratory issues.

Question 8 of 9

Which immunoglobulin is specific to an allergic response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgE. IgE is specific to allergic responses as it binds to mast cells and basophils, triggering the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. IgA is more involved in mucosal immunity, IgG is involved in long-term immunity and opsonization, and IgM is the primary antibody in the primary immune response. IgB is not a known immunoglobulin. Therefore, IgE is the specific immunoglobulin associated with allergic responses due to its role in mediating hypersensitivity reactions.

Question 9 of 9

Which action will the nurse take after the plan of care for a patient is developed?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because after developing a plan of care, the nurse must communicate it to all healthcare professionals involved in the patient's care to ensure everyone is aware of the plan and can collaborate effectively. This promotes continuity of care and prevents errors. Choice A is incorrect because the plan of care should not be placed in the chart to avoid tampering; it should be easily accessible for updates. Choice C is incorrect as filing in the administration office is unnecessary for routine care. Choice D is incorrect as sending the plan to quality assurance is not the immediate next step after developing the plan.

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