ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is interviewing a patient with a hearing deficit. Which area should the nurse use to conduct this interview?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because conducting the interview in a quiet environment, like the waiting area with the television turned off, reduces background noise and distractions for the patient with a hearing deficit. This allows for better communication and understanding. A: Conducting the interview in the patient's room with the door closed may still have distractions or noise from outside the room. C: Conducting the interview in the patient's room before administration of pain medication does not address the issue of reducing background noise for better communication. D: Conducting the interview in the waiting room while the occupational therapist is working on leg exercises introduces additional distractions and noise, making it harder for the patient with a hearing deficit to communicate effectively.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a client with acute bronchitis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Washing the hands frequently. This is important for preventing the spread of infection, which is crucial in acute bronchitis. By washing hands frequently, the client can reduce the risk of transmitting the infection to others and prevent reinfection. A: Not coughing frequently - While managing cough is important, it is not the most crucial aspect in the teaching plan for acute bronchitis. C: Consuming adequate calories - While nutrition is important for overall health, it is not specifically related to the management of acute bronchitis. D: Encouraging a semi-Fowler’s position - While this position can help with breathing, it is not the most important aspect in the teaching plan for acute bronchitis.
Question 3 of 9
A woman with pelvic inflammatory disease complains of lower abdominal pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to administer antibiotics as ordered first because pelvic inflammatory disease is caused by an infection, usually from sexually transmitted organisms. Administering antibiotics promptly is crucial to prevent further complications and treat the underlying infection. This helps to alleviate the source of the pain. Rating pain severity, administering analgesics, and patient education are important but should come after addressing the infection to prevent worsening of the condition.
Question 4 of 9
A client seeks care for hopeless that has lasted for 1 month. To elicit the most appropriate information about this problem, the nurse should ask which question.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: “Have you strained your voice recently?” This question is relevant to the client's symptom of hopeless, as vocal strain can contribute to this issue. Asking about voice strain helps to identify a potential cause and guides further assessment and intervention. Choice A is not directly related to the client's primary concern and does not address the underlying cause of hopeless. Choice C is unrelated to the client's symptom and does not provide information that is pertinent to addressing the issue at hand. Choice D is also unrelated to the client's symptom of hopeless and does not address potential contributing factors.
Question 5 of 9
Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse expect to see in a plan of care for a client in sickle cell crisis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pain related to sickle cell crisis. In a sickle cell crisis, the client experiences severe pain due to the sickling of red blood cells, which causes blockages in blood vessels. This pain is the hallmark symptom of sickle cell crisis and is a priority nursing diagnosis. The other choices are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary issue of sickle cell crisis. Imbalanced nutrition is not typically a priority during a crisis, disturbed sleep pattern is not a common symptom, and impaired skin integrity is not a prominent concern in sickle cell crisis.
Question 6 of 9
A post-TURP patient experiences dribbling following removal of his catheter. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach him to perform Kegel's exercises 10 to 20 times per hour. This is the appropriate action because Kegel's exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve urinary control and reduce dribbling post-TURP. Restricting fluid intake (A) is not necessary and may lead to dehydration. Reinserting the Foley catheter (C) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Reassuring the patient (D) without providing any intervention is not addressing the issue. Teaching Kegel's exercises is the most effective and non-invasive approach to manage post-TURP dribbling.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse has given medication instruction to the client receiving phenyton (Dilantin). The nurse determines that the client has an adequate understanding if the client states that:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing." This is because phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause gingival hyperplasia, a side effect that leads to overgrowth of gum tissue. Good oral hygiene practices, such as regular brushing and flossing, can help prevent or minimize this side effect. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol is contraindicated while taking phenytoin as it can increase the risk of side effects and decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Choice C is incorrect because medication doses should never be self-adjusted without consulting a healthcare provider, as this can lead to ineffective treatment or potential harm. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of the morning dose in relation to drawing a serum drug level is not relevant to the client's understanding of medication instructions and does not address the specific side effect of gingival hyperplasia associated with phenytoin.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following diets would the nurse include in the plan of care for a person with AIDS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A high-protein, high-calorie diet divided into six small meals. For a person with AIDS, this diet is beneficial to maintain muscle mass, support immune function, and provide energy. High-protein helps in tissue repair, while high-calorie intake helps combat weight loss common in AIDS. Dividing into small frequent meals aids in digestion and absorption. Choice B is incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide enough calories for the increased energy needs of a person with AIDS. Choice C is incorrect because a high-carbohydrate, fat-restricted diet may not provide sufficient protein for muscle maintenance. Choice D is incorrect because a high-fat diet may lead to weight gain and can be harder to digest for someone with compromised immunity.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff instructions should be given to the clients family if a client with impaired swallowing has to take solid medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because crushing or breaking tablets can alter the medication's effectiveness or cause harm. Step 1: Consult a physician or pharmacist ensures safety and effectiveness. Step 2: This step helps in determining if the medication can be safely altered for easier swallowing. Step 3: Using liquid form (B) may not always be an option. Mixing with food (A) can affect absorption. ROM exercises (D) are unrelated to medication administration.