ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is interviewing a client about his past medical history. Which preexisting condition may lead the nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Polyps. Polyps in the colon are precancerous growths that can develop into colorectal cancer over time. Identifying polyps during a medical history interview can raise suspicion for colorectal cancer due to their potential to progress into malignancy. Duodenal ulcer (A) is not directly related to colorectal cancer. Weight gain (B) is a non-specific symptom and does not specifically indicate colorectal cancer. Hemorrhoids (C) are common and usually benign, not directly linked to colorectal cancer.
Question 2 of 5
A 52-year old female tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self- examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Non-mobile mass with irregular edges delineated. This finding strongly suggests cancer as non-mobile masses with irregular edges are characteristic of malignant tumors. Cancerous lumps tend to be fixed in place due to involvement of surrounding tissues. Irregular edges indicate potential invasive growth. Choices A and B describe characteristics more commonly associated with benign masses. Eversion of the nipple is concerning for cancer but not specific enough to strongly suggest malignancy. Choice D indicates absence of lymph node involvement, which is not directly related to the characteristics of the breast lump.
Question 3 of 5
During a routine checkup, the nurse assesses a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for signs and symptoms of cancer. What is the common AIDS-related cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kaposi’s sarcoma. In AIDS patients, Kaposi’s sarcoma is a common cancer caused by human herpesvirus 8. It presents as purple or brown skin lesions. Squamous cell carcinoma (A), leukemia (B), and multiple myeloma (C) are not commonly associated with AIDS. Squamous cell carcinoma is linked to sun exposure, leukemia originates in the bone marrow, and multiple myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D due to its strong association with AIDS.
Question 4 of 5
A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as it can lead to cellular changes in the cervix. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause abnormal cell growth in the cervix. 2. Persistent HPV infection is a major risk factor for developing cervical cancer. 3. Age 32 is within the typical age range for HPV infection and the development of cervical cancer. 4. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, which is HPV infection.
Question 5 of 5
A client with advanced breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of reporting which adverse reaction immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vision changes. This is crucial to report immediately because tamoxifen can cause serious eye problems such as retinopathy. Vision changes could indicate a potentially serious adverse reaction that requires prompt medical attention to prevent permanent damage. Headache, hearing loss, and anorexia are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and are less urgent in nature. Reporting vision changes promptly can help prevent irreversible harm and ensure timely intervention.