ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is intervening for a patient that has a risk for a urinary infection. Which direct care nursing intervention is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Teaches proper handwashing technique. This is the most appropriate intervention because proper handwashing can help prevent the spread of infection, including urinary infections. Teaching the patient about handwashing empowers them to take control of their own hygiene, reducing the risk of infection. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Properly cleans the patient's toilet - While important for maintaining cleanliness, this does not directly address the patient's risk for a urinary infection. C: Transports urine specimen to the lab - This is not a direct care intervention for preventing urinary infections. D: Informs the oncoming nurse during hand-off - Hand-off communication is important for continuity of care but does not directly address the patient's risk for a urinary infection.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff. descriptions by the nurse would best explain glaucoma to a patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "There is an increase in the intraocular pressure." Glaucoma is a group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve due to increased pressure within the eye. High intraocular pressure is a key factor in the development of glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect because glaucoma is not associated with an increase in vitreous humor. Choice C is incorrect as glaucoma is not related to a decrease in aqueous humor. Choice D is incorrect because glaucoma is characterized by an increase, not a decrease, in intraocular pressure. Therefore, the most accurate description to explain glaucoma to a patient is the one that mentions the increase in intraocular pressure.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is instructed to perform preoperative preparation for the management of a client with malignant tumors. Which of the ff is the most important factor of the nursing management plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintaining the integrity of the urinary system. This is crucial in preoperative preparation for a client with malignant tumors to prevent complications such as urinary obstruction or infection. Assessing symptoms of peritonitis (B) is important but not as critical as ensuring urinary system integrity. Insertion of an ostomy pouch (A) and nasogastric tube diversion procedure (D) may be necessary interventions for some cases, but they are not as essential as ensuring the urinary system's integrity to prevent serious complications.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse understands that an anaphylactic reaction is considered which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I hypersensitivity reaction. In Type I hypersensitivity, anaphylactic reactions involve immediate IgE-mediated responses to allergens, leading to histamine release and potentially life-threatening symptoms. This type of reaction is characterized by rapid onset and systemic involvement. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Type III reactions involve immune complex deposition leading to inflammation (B), Type II reactions involve cytotoxic antibodies targeting cells (C), and Type IV reactions involve delayed cell-mediated responses (D).
Question 5 of 9
A male client is prescribed medications that depress thrombocytes. The nurse should monitor for which of the ff signs and symptoms in the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bleeding gums and dark tarry stools. Thrombocytes are platelets responsible for blood clotting. Medications that depress thrombocytes can lead to decreased clotting ability, resulting in bleeding tendencies. Bleeding gums and dark tarry stools are common signs of bleeding due to decreased platelet function. A: Sore throat and swollen glands are more indicative of a possible infection or inflammation, not related to thrombocyte depression. B: Pernicious anemia with weakness is associated with vitamin B12 deficiency, not directly related to thrombocyte depression. D: Thickening of blood and bruising are not typical signs of decreased platelet function, but rather may be indicative of other conditions like clotting disorders.
Question 6 of 9
A client with allergic rhinitis is prescribed loratadine (Claritin). On a follow-up visit, the client tells the nurse, “I take one 10-mg of Claritin with a glass of water two times daily”. The nurse concludes that the client requires additional teaching about this medication because:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Loratadine is typically dosed once daily, not twice daily, for allergic rhinitis. 2. Taking it twice daily may increase the risk of side effects without added benefit. 3. The client's dosing schedule reflects a misunderstanding of the medication regimen. 4. Option A is incorrect because loratadine is available in 10mg tablets. 5. Option B is incorrect as loratadine can be taken with or without food. 6. Option D is incorrect as Claritin is a common trade name for loratadine.
Question 7 of 9
A client on hemodialysis is complaining of muscle weakness and numbness in his legs. His lab results are: Na 136 mEq/L, K 5.9 mEq/L, Cl 100 mEq/L, ca 8.5 mg/dl. Which electrolyte imbalance is the client suffering from?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. In hemodialysis, potassium levels can be elevated due to impaired renal excretion. High potassium can lead to muscle weakness and numbness. The client's K level of 5.9 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), confirming hyperkalemia. Na, Cl, and Ca levels are within normal limits, ruling out hypernatremia, hypochloremia, and hypocalcemia as the client's primary electrolyte imbalance. Monitoring and managing hyperkalemia are crucial to prevent life-threatening complications like cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 8 of 9
What are the periods in life when the need for iron increases?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy. During pregnancy, the need for iron increases significantly to support the growth of the fetus and to prevent maternal anemia. Iron is essential for the production of hemoglobin and for oxygen transport in the blood. In contrast, infants require iron for rapid growth and development, making choice B partially correct. Choice C (Old age) and choice D (Male reproductive years) are incorrect as the need for iron typically decreases in old age and remains relatively stable during male reproductive years.
Question 9 of 9
A client agreed to become an organ donor is pronounced dead. What is the most important factor in selecting a transplant recipient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Compatible blood and tissue types. This is crucial to minimize the risk of rejection and ensure a successful transplant. Matching blood and tissue types help prevent the recipient's immune system from attacking the new organ. Blood relationship (A) is not as important as compatibility. Sex and size (C) are important considerations for certain transplants but not the most crucial factor. Need (D) is relevant but does not outweigh the importance of compatibility to ensure a successful transplant.