ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is giving the client digoxin for heart failure and recognizes that the drug has what type of effect on the heart?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positive inotropic, negative chronotropic effect. Digoxin is a positive inotrope, meaning it increases the force of heart contractions, improving cardiac output in heart failure. It also has a negative chronotropic effect by slowing the heart rate, which can be beneficial in certain heart conditions. Option A is incorrect because digoxin has a positive inotropic effect. Option C is incorrect as it contradicts itself by stating both negative and positive inotropic effects. Option D is incorrect because digoxin does not have a positive chronotropic effect; it actually slows the heart rate.
Question 2 of 5
The client is taking a class I anti-arrhythmic medication. How does this type of medication work?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for answer D: 1. Class I anti-arrhythmic drugs work by blocking sodium channels in the heart. 2. Blocking sodium channels slows the phase 0 depolarization of cardiac cells. 3. This decreases the conduction velocity and excitability of cardiac tissue. 4. Ultimately, it helps to stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent arrhythmias. Summary: A: Blocking calcium channels is typical for Class IV antiarrhythmics, not Class I. B: Increasing conduction through AV node is not the mechanism of Class I antiarrhythmics. C: Decreasing excitability of SA node is not how Class I antiarrhythmics work.
Question 3 of 5
The client is taking an ACE inhibitor. The nurse explains to the client that this drug acts how?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Option A is incorrect as calcium channel blockers are a different class of drugs. Option C is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not have a direct inotropic effect on the heart. Option D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not have a direct effect on heart rate.
Question 4 of 5
The client is to take IV heparin. What is a contraindication to giving the drug? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Uncontrolled bleeding) Rationale: 1. Heparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. 2. Uncontrolled bleeding is a contraindication because heparin can increase the risk of bleeding. 3. Deep vein thrombosis (A) is not a contraindication as heparin is used to treat and prevent DVT. 4. Thrombocytosis (C) is an increased platelet count and not a contraindication for heparin. 5. Thrombocytopenia (D) is a low platelet count, which can increase the risk of bleeding, making it a contraindication as well.
Question 5 of 5
The client is being switched from warfarin to Pradaxa. What does the nurse look for as an indication to give the Pradaxa?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is D. Pradaxa, a direct oral anticoagulant, can be given 2 days after stopping warfarin to prevent overlapping anticoagulation effects. This allows for a smooth transition without increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because A) waiting for the INR to normalize may lead to a delay in starting Pradaxa, B) stopping warfarin alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for starting Pradaxa, and C) waiting for the INR to be less than 2 is not specific to initiating Pradaxa.