ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is giving the client digoxin for heart failure and recognizes that the drug has what type of effect on the heart?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positive inotropic, negative chronotropic effect. Digoxin has a positive inotropic effect, meaning it increases the strength of the heart's contractions. This is beneficial in heart failure. Digoxin also has a negative chronotropic effect, which means it decreases the heart rate. This helps improve the efficiency of the heart's pumping action. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the effects of digoxin on the heart.
Question 2 of 5
The client is taking a class I anti-arrhythmic medication. How does this type of medication work?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Class I anti-arrhythmic medications work by blocking sodium channels in the heart, which results in a decrease in the rate of depolarization and conduction velocity. This helps to stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent abnormal rhythms. Choice A is incorrect because blocking calcium channels is characteristic of Class IV anti-arrhythmic medications. Choice B is incorrect as increasing conduction through the AV node is not the mechanism of action for Class I drugs. Choice C is incorrect because decreasing the excitability of the SA node is more indicative of Class II anti-arrhythmic medications.
Question 3 of 5
The client is taking an ACE inhibitor. The nurse explains to the client that this drug acts how?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because ACE inhibitors block the conversion of renin to angiotensin II. This action helps dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease sodium and water retention. Choice A is incorrect because calcium channel blockers, not ACE inhibitors, block calcium channels in blood vessels. Choice C is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not have a direct positive inotropic effect on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because ACE inhibitors do not have a direct negative chronotropic effect on the heart.
Question 4 of 5
The client is to take IV heparin. What is a contraindication to giving the drug? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uncontrolled bleeding. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, if a client has uncontrolled bleeding, giving heparin can exacerbate the situation and lead to severe bleeding complications. Deep vein thrombosis (A) is a condition where heparin is actually indicated to prevent clot formation. Thrombocytosis (C) is an elevated platelet count and is not a contraindication to heparin. Thrombocytopenia (D) is a low platelet count, which can increase the risk of bleeding with heparin but is not a contraindication on its own.
Question 5 of 5
The client is being switched from warfarin to Pradaxa. What does the nurse look for as an indication to give the Pradaxa?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Give the Pradaxa 2 days after stopping the warfarin. This is because Pradaxa does not require INR monitoring like warfarin. By waiting 2 days after stopping warfarin, the risk of overlapping anticoagulant effects is minimized, reducing the risk of bleeding. A: When the INR has normalized - This is incorrect because Pradaxa does not require INR monitoring. B: When the warfarin is stopped, the Pradaxa can be given - This is not ideal as immediate switch may lead to overlapping anticoagulant effects. C: When the INR is less than 2, you can give the Pradaxa - INR level is not a consideration for starting Pradaxa.