ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is giving intravenous nitroglycerin to a patient who has just been admitted because of an acute myocardial infarction. Which statement is true regarding the administration of the intravenous form of this medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Intravenous nitroglycerin can be given in infusions with other medications, such as saline or dextrose solutions, to manage acute conditions like acute myocardial infarction. Combining nitroglycerin with other medications in an infusion is a common practice to treat patients in critical conditions and optimize therapy. This allows healthcare providers to administer multiple medications simultaneously through the same IV line, ensuring prompt and effective treatment.
Question 2 of 5
A patient suffering from generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) has a history of drug dependence that includes the illicit use of secobarbital ('reds') and a variety of other drugs. Psychotherapy is indicated, but the physician also prescribes a drug that can be helpful in GAD and that has the advantage of no abuse liability. The drug prescribed was most likely to have been
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Buspirone, a 5HT1A partial agonist, treats GAD by modulating serotonin without sedative or euphoric effects, making it ideal for patients with substance abuse histories like secobarbital (a barbiturate). It lacks abuse potential, unlike benzodiazepines, and doesn't cause dependence, aligning with the patient's needs. Bupropion, an NE/DA reuptake inhibitor, targets depression and smoking cessation, not GAD, and has stimulant-like risks. Baclofen, a GABA_B agonist, manages spasticity, not anxiety, and has some abuse potential. Buprenorphine, an opioid partial agonist, treats addiction but not GAD and carries dependence risk. Phenobarbital, a barbiturate, mirrors the patient's abuse history and is contraindicated. Buspirone's efficacy in GAD, non-addictive nature, and safety in this context make it the optimal choice.
Question 3 of 5
A pregnant woman who is having labor pains is receiving an opioid analgesic. Which of the following medications should be ready in case a respiratory depression occurs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone (Narcan) is the antidote for opioid-induced respiratory depression and should be readily available when administering opioid analgesics during labor. It works by reversing the effects of opioids on the respiratory system, restoring normal breathing. Oxycodone, meperidine, and morphine are opioids and would exacerbate respiratory depression. Therefore, naloxone is the correct medication to have on hand.
Question 4 of 5
The home health nurse notes that the elderly patient doubled up on his pain medication, even though the prescribed dose was at a therapeutic level. The patient says, 'If one pill is good, two pills are better.' Which statement best describes the result of the patient's action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Doubling a therapeutic dose exceeds the plateau-efficacy maxes out, but side effects (e.g., sedation) rise with excess, especially in the elderly with slower clearance. Tolerance needs chronic use, not one event. More relief assumes linear gain, not true. Tolerance requiring more is future, not immediate. Side effects reflect pharmacodynamics, a key risk.
Question 5 of 5
The following are sympathomimetic amines , EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sympathomimetic amines are compounds that mimic the effects of the sympathetic nervous system. Options A, C, D, and E (epinephrine, norepinephrine, levonordefrin, and phenylephrine) are all sympathomimetic amines commonly used in dentistry for their vasoconstrictive properties. Felypressin, on the other hand, is a synthetic vasopressin analog and does not have sympathomimetic properties. It is commonly used in dentistry as a local vasoconstrictor to prolong the anesthetic effect.