The nurse is given an order to give the client milrinone (Primacor). For what reason might this drug be ordered?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: For congestive heart failure. Milrinone is a type of inotropic agent used to treat congestive heart failure by increasing cardiac contractility and improving cardiac output. It is not typically used for hypertension (B), as there are more appropriate medications available. It is also not indicated for cardiac arrhythmias (C) or bradycardia (D), as its primary action is to improve cardiac function in heart failure patients.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Atrial flutter. Calcium channel blockers slow down the conduction of electrical impulses in the heart, which can help stabilize the heart rate in atrial arrhythmias like atrial flutter. Ventricular tachycardia (B) is usually treated with antiarrhythmic drugs or electrical cardioversion. Frequent PVCs (C) are commonly managed by beta-blockers. Sinus bradycardia (D) is a condition of slowed heart rate that is typically not treated with calcium channel blockers. In this case, the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers aligns with the treatment goal for atrial flutter, making it the correct choice.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Neutropenia is a known side effect of captopril, an ACE inhibitor. Captopril can lead to a decrease in white blood cells, including neutrophils. Metoprolol, Lisinopril, and Guanfacine are not associated with causing neutropenia. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker, Lisinopril is another ACE inhibitor, and Guanfacine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist. It is crucial to identify captopril as the likely medication causing neutropenia based on its pharmacological profile and known adverse effects.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for hemorrhage. This is a priority nursing intervention because low molecular weight heparin can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool is crucial to prevent serious complications. A: Monitoring heparin levels is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it does not require routine monitoring. B: Monitoring aPTT is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it primarily affects unfractionated heparin levels. D: Monitoring blood sugar is unrelated to low molecular weight heparin therapy and is not a priority intervention. In summary, monitoring for hemorrhage is essential to ensure patient safety when on low molecular weight heparin, making it the correct priority nursing intervention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a rare but serious adverse effect associated with ADP receptor blockers, characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, fever, renal dysfunction, and neurological abnormalities. The development of hemorrhaging and low platelet count in this client suggests TTP, not a typical reaction to ADP receptor blockers (choice A), not necessarily due to concomitant aspirin use (choice B), and not necessarily indicative of taking too much of the medication (choice D). TTP requires immediate medical intervention to prevent serious complications.