The nurse is given an order to give the client milrinone (Primacor). For what reason might this drug be ordered?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: For congestive heart failure. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that helps improve cardiac contractility and output, making it a suitable treatment for congestive heart failure. It is used in patients with reduced ejection fraction and symptoms of heart failure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because milrinone is not typically used for hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, or bradycardia. It is important for the nurse to understand the specific indications for milrinone to ensure safe and effective administration to the client.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Atrial flutter. Calcium channel blockers are used to treat atrial arrhythmias by slowing down the conduction of electrical signals in the heart, specifically in the atria. This helps in controlling the heart rate and rhythm in conditions like atrial flutter. B: Ventricular tachycardia is incorrect because calcium channel blockers primarily affect the atria, not the ventricles where ventricular tachycardia originates. C: Frequent PVCs is incorrect as calcium channel blockers are not typically used to treat premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). D: Sinus bradycardia is incorrect because calcium channel blockers can further slow down the heart rate, potentially worsening sinus bradycardia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Captopril. Captopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause neutropenia as a rare side effect by suppressing bone marrow function. Metoprolol (A) is a beta-blocker and does not typically cause neutropenia. Lisinopril (C) is also an ACE inhibitor, but it is less likely to cause neutropenia compared to captopril. Guanfacine (D) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist and is not associated with neutropenia. Therefore, based on the mechanism of action and side effect profile, captopril is the most likely medication to have caused neutropenia in the client.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for hemorrhage. This is the priority intervention for a client on low molecular weight heparin due to its anticoagulant effect, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for hemorrhage involves assessing for signs such as bruising, petechiae, hematomas, and abnormal bleeding from any site. This intervention is crucial to detect and address any bleeding complications promptly. Incorrect choices: A: Monitoring the heparin level is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it does not require routine monitoring. B: Monitoring the aPTT is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it has a more predictable anticoagulant effect than unfractionated heparin. D: Monitoring the blood sugar is not directly related to the use of low molecular weight heparin and is not a priority intervention in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): The client developing hemorrhaging and a low platelet count while on an ADP receptor blocker suggests thrombotic thrombocytopenia. Thrombotic thrombocytopenia is a rare but serious adverse effect characterized by the formation of blood clots and a decrease in platelet count. This condition can lead to both bleeding and clotting issues, explaining the hemorrhaging and low platelet count in the client. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: The low platelet count is not an anticipated reaction to taking an ADP receptor blocker. While some antiplatelet medications can cause decreased platelet count, thrombotic thrombocytopenia is a more specific and severe condition. B: The combination of ADP receptor blockers with aspirin is a common therapy for preventing cardiovascular events but does not directly explain the development of thrombotic thrombocytopenia. D: Simply taking too much of the ADP receptor blocker