ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Objective data are measurable and observable facts obtained through physical examination or diagnostic tests. In this case, "Respirations 16" is a quantifiable and observable measurement, making it objective data. It is not influenced by personal interpretation or feelings. The other choices, such as "States 'doesn't feel good'", "Reports a headache", and "Nauseated" are subjective data because they are based on the patient's feelings or experiences, which can vary depending on individual perception and interpretation, making them less reliable for making clinical decisions. By focusing on objective data like "Respirations 16", the nurse can provide a more accurate assessment of the patient's condition.
Question 2 of 9
A client suspected of having colorectal cancer will require which diagnostic study to confirm the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sigmoidoscopy. Sigmoidoscopy is a direct visualization procedure that allows for examination of the lower part of the colon and rectum, where colorectal cancer commonly occurs. This procedure can help identify any abnormal growths or polyps that may indicate cancer. Stool hematest (A) detects blood in stool but does not confirm colorectal cancer. Abdominal CT (B) provides imaging of the abdomen but may not definitively diagnose colorectal cancer. CEA scan (C) measures a tumor marker associated with colorectal cancer but is not a definitive diagnostic test. Thus, sigmoidoscopy is the most appropriate diagnostic study for confirming colorectal cancer.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has orders to receive 1 L (1000 mL) of 5% dextrose and lactated Ringer’s solution to be infused over 8 hours. How many millilitres will be infused per hour?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 125 mL/h. To calculate the infusion rate per hour, we divide the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time in hours (8 hours). 1000 mL / 8 hours = 125 mL/h. This ensures a consistent and accurate infusion rate throughout the 8-hour period. Choice A (80 mL/h) is incorrect because it underestimates the infusion rate. Choice B (100 mL/h) is incorrect because it does not divide the total volume by the total time correctly. Choice D (150 mL/h) is incorrect because it overestimates the infusion rate.
Question 4 of 9
The physician orders tests to determine if a client has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which test result confirms SLE?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: An above-normal anti-deoxyribonucleic acid. In SLE, the body produces antibodies against its own DNA, leading to the presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies. Elevated levels of anti-dsDNA antibodies are specific to SLE, confirming the diagnosis. A: Increased total serum complement levels are seen in SLE due to complement activation but are not specific to SLE. C: Negative antinuclear antibody test is not consistent with SLE, as ANA positivity is common in SLE. D: Negative lupus erythematosus cell test is not specific to SLE as lupus erythematosus cells are not always present.
Question 5 of 9
Following the American Cancer Society guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the women:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the American Cancer Society recommends women to have a mammogram annually starting at age 45, then have the option to transition to biennial screening at age 55. This recommendation is based on evidence that regular mammograms can help detect breast cancer early, increasing chances of successful treatment. Choice A is incorrect because self-examinations are no longer recommended as a routine screening method. Choice B is incorrect as clinical breast exams are not as effective as mammograms for detecting breast cancer. Choice D is incorrect as normal receptor assays are not part of routine breast cancer screening guidelines.
Question 6 of 9
A client has undergone the Snellen eye chart test and has 20/40 vision. Which of the ff is true for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the Snellen eye chart test, the first number (20) represents the distance at which the client is viewing the chart, and the second number (40) represents the distance at which a person with normal vision can read the same line. Therefore, a client with 20/40 vision sees letters at 20 feet that others with normal vision can read at 40 feet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the interpretation of the 20/40 vision result from the Snellen eye chart test. B is incorrect because the client does not see letters at 40 feet that others can read at 20 feet. Choices C and D are incorrect because the Snellen eye chart test measures visual acuity, not color perception.
Question 7 of 9
Which interventions are appropriate for a patient with diabetes and poor wound healing? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Dressing changes twice a day help maintain a clean wound environment, reducing the risk of infection. 2. Regular dressing changes promote proper wound healing by facilitating moisture balance and removal of dead tissue. 3. It is a direct intervention that addresses the patient's poor wound healing. 4. Teaching the patient about signs of infection (B) is important but does not directly address the wound healing process. 5. Instructing the family on dressing changes (C) is helpful but should not substitute direct patient care. 6. Refocusing the patient from body image changes (D) is not directly related to improving wound healing.
Question 8 of 9
Which points should a nurse includes in the discharge teaching plan for a client after cardiac surgery?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it addresses the importance of notifying the physician about a painless lump at the top of the chest incision, which could indicate a serious complication like a seroma or hematoma. This is crucial for early detection and intervention. A is incorrect because showers are generally allowed after cardiac surgery as long as the incisions are kept clean and dry. C is incorrect because support hose or elastic stockings are typically recommended to be worn during the day and removed at night to prevent swelling and promote circulation. D is incorrect because resuming sexual relations after cardiac surgery should be based on individual recovery and should be discussed with the healthcare provider, rather than a standard timeframe.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff is a nursing intervention to ensure that the client is free from injury caused by falls?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because monitoring for swelling and heaviness of legs is essential in preventing falls, which can be caused by conditions like edema or circulatory issues. Swollen or heavy legs can affect mobility and balance, increasing the risk of falls. This intervention helps identify potential issues early and implement preventive measures. Choice A is incorrect as monitoring for chest pain and LDL levels pertains more to cardiovascular health than fall prevention. Choice C is incorrect because monitoring postural changes in BP is important for managing hypertension, not necessarily for preventing falls. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring temperature for mild fever is more related to identifying infections rather than preventing falls.