ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Objective data are measurable and observable, such as vital signs. Respirations of 16 are a specific numerical measurement that can be quantified. This makes choice C the correct answer as it is factual and quantifiable. Choices A, B, and D are subjective data, as they rely on the patient's feelings or experiences, which are open to interpretation and not measurable. Therefore, the nurse should report choice C as objective data as it provides concrete information for assessment and decision-making.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff is a critical task of a nurse during the uterosigmoidostomy procedure for treating a malignant tumor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspecting for bleeding or cyanosis. During uterosigmoidostomy, the nurse's critical task is to monitor for any signs of bleeding or cyanosis, which are indicators of potential complications such as hemorrhage or impaired blood flow. This involves observing the surgical site for any abnormal bleeding and assessing the skin color for signs of inadequate oxygenation. Inspecting for symptoms of peritonitis (B) is not directly related to this surgical procedure. Assessing the client's allergy to iodine (C) is important but not a critical task during the procedure. Checking for signs of electrolyte losses (D) is important but not as critical as monitoring for immediate postoperative complications like bleeding or cyanosis.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has orders to receive 1 L (1000 mL) of 5% dextrose and lactated Ringer’s solution to be infused over 8 hours. How many millilitres will be infused per hour?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 125 mL/h. To calculate the infusion rate per hour, we divide the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time in hours (8 hours). 1000 mL / 8 hours = 125 mL/h. This ensures a consistent and accurate infusion rate throughout the 8-hour period. Choice A (80 mL/h) is incorrect because it underestimates the infusion rate. Choice B (100 mL/h) is incorrect because it does not divide the total volume by the total time correctly. Choice D (150 mL/h) is incorrect because it overestimates the infusion rate.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse caring for an adult client. The nurse will need to monitor for which of the following metabolic complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, hyperglycemia and hypokalemia. Hyperglycemia can occur in adult clients due to various factors such as diabetes or stress. Hypokalemia can be a consequence of hyperglycemia or other conditions leading to potassium loss. Monitoring for these metabolic complications is essential to ensure the client's well-being. Other choices are incorrect because hypoglycemia and hypercalcemia (choice A) are less likely to occur concurrently in adult clients. Hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia (choice B) are less common as hyperkalemia is usually associated with renal dysfunction. Hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia (choice D) are less likely to be monitored together as they are not commonly seen in the same clinical context.
Question 5 of 9
To prevent infection in a patient with a subdural intracranial pressure monitoring system in place, the nurse should;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use aseptic technique for the insertion site. Aseptic technique is necessary to prevent infection when accessing the intracranial pressure monitoring system. Aseptic technique involves maintaining a sterile field during the insertion process, reducing the risk of introducing pathogens. Using clean technique for cleansing connections (choice B) may introduce contaminants to the insertion site. Sterile technique for cleansing the insertion site (choice C) is not necessary and may be overly stringent. Closing leaks in the tubing with tape (choice D) does not address the prevention of infection at the insertion site.
Question 6 of 9
Following hypophysectomy, patients require extensive teaching regarding this major alteration in their lifestyle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (Lifetime dependency on hormone replacement) because after hypophysectomy (removal of the pituitary gland), patients will no longer produce essential hormones like growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, etc. Therefore, they will require lifelong hormone replacement therapy to maintain normal bodily functions. A: Abnormal distribution of body hair is not directly related to hypophysectomy. C: While fluid intake may be important post-surgery, it is not the primary focus of teaching. D: There is typically no need for repeat surgical procedures after a hypophysectomy, as it is a one-time surgery to address specific issues. In summary, choice B is correct as it directly addresses the long-term implications of the surgery on hormone production and the need for replacement therapy, while the other choices are not directly relevant to the post-operative care of hypophysectomy patients.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse develops a nursing diagnostic statement for a patient with a medical diagnosis of pneumonia with chest x-ray results of lower lobe infiltrates. Which nursing diagnosis did the nurse write?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Impaired gas exchange related to alveolar-capillary membrane changes. This is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient with pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates. The rationale is that pneumonia causes inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli, impairing the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs. This directly affects gas exchange. Choice A is incorrect because ineffective breathing pattern is a broad nursing diagnosis that does not specifically address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange in pneumonia. Choice B is incorrect as the risk of infection related to the chest x-ray procedure is unrelated to the patient's current condition of pneumonia. Choice C is also incorrect as dehydration does not directly correlate with the patient's diagnosis of pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates.
Question 8 of 9
When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, which cranial nerve is being tested?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The cranial nerve responsible for facial expression is CN VII, the facial nerve. 2. When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, they are testing the function of CN VII. 3. CN II (optic nerve) is responsible for vision, not facial expression. 4. CN X (vagus nerve) is responsible for various functions like heart rate and digestion, not facial expression. 5. CN XI (accessory nerve) is responsible for shoulder movement, not facial expression. Summary: Testing a patient's ability to smile involves assessing the function of CN VII, the facial nerve. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are associated with different functions and not responsible for controlling facial muscles.
Question 9 of 9
To monitor the severity of a patient’s heart failure, which of the ff. assessments is the most appropriate for the nurse to include as a daily assessment in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight. Monitoring daily weight is crucial in assessing fluid retention and worsening heart failure symptoms. Weight gain can indicate fluid overload, a common complication in heart failure. The other choices (B: Appetite, C: Calorie count, and D: Abdominal girth) are not as directly related to monitoring heart failure severity. Appetite and calorie count may be affected by various factors unrelated to heart failure, while abdominal girth may not provide specific information on fluid status. Monitoring weight allows for early intervention and adjustments in treatment to prevent exacerbation of heart failure symptoms.