ATI RN
Medical Surgical Nursing Concepts and Practice Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is evaluating care provided to a client with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which finding indicates care has been successful for this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a serious condition characterized by both excessive clotting and bleeding throughout the body. The primary goal of care for a client with DIC is to manage and balance the clotting and bleeding tendencies. A key indicator of successful care for a client with DIC is the absence of bleeding, as this suggests that the coagulation process has been stabilized and there is no ongoing clot breakdown leading to bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, purpura, ecchymosis, hematuria, and gastrointestinal bleeding, is essential in evaluating the effectiveness of care in a client with DIC. Therefore, the absence of bleeding is the most significant finding that indicates successful care in a client with DIC.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is teaching a group of pregnant clients regarding seizures associated with eclampsia. Which statement associated with eclampsia are accurate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In eclampsia, seizures can occur due to the underlying hypertensive crisis affecting the brain. A classic grand mal seizure consists of two phases: the tonic phase and the clonic phase. During the tonic phase, there is a sudden loss of consciousness and muscle tone, leading to the person falling down. The clonic phase follows the tonic phase and is characterized by rhythmic, repetitive muscle contractions and relaxation. Therefore, the accurate statement about the characteristics of a grand mal seizure in the context of eclampsia is that the clonic phase is evidenced by muscular contraction and rigidity.
Question 3 of 5
A client diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is obese, has a 30-year history of cigarette smoking, and works as a contractor. When discussing risk factors for PVD, which statement by the nurse is appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The statement "Nicotine causes vasospasms, which reduce blood flow to the legs" is the most appropriate response when discussing risk factors for PVD with a client who is obese, has a history of smoking, and works as a contractor. Nicotine in cigarette smoke can lead to constriction or narrowing of blood vessels, including those in the legs, which can reduce blood flow to the lower extremities. This can contribute to the development and progression of peripheral vascular disease (PVD) in individuals with a history of smoking. Identifying and educating the client about this specific risk factor related to their smoking history is important in managing their condition and preventing further complications.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is providing care to several clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client is at highest risk for a nonthrombotic pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client who is postoperative from a major surgery, such as femur fracture repair, is at the highest risk for a nonthrombotic pulmonary embolism (PE). Postoperative clients are at an increased risk due to factors such as immobility, surgical trauma, and possible venous stasis. Additionally, major orthopedic surgeries involving the lower extremities carry a higher risk of developing a PE because of the potential for blood clots to form in the veins of the legs (deep vein thrombosis) and then travel to the lungs, leading to a pulmonary embolism. Close monitoring and preventative measures, such as early ambulation, compression devices, and anticoagulant therapy, are crucial in preventing this serious complication in postoperative clients.
Question 5 of 5
While completing a health history with an older adult client, the nurse learns that the client experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA) several months ago. The nurse should recognize that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is often considered a warning sign that the individual is at an increased risk for a future ischemic stroke. TIAs are brief episodes of neurological dysfunction caused by a temporary disruption in blood supply to the brain. While the symptoms of a TIA typically resolve within 24 hours, they should not be ignored as they indicate an underlying vascular issue that needs to be addressed to prevent a more severe stroke in the future. Therefore, the client is at risk for an ischemic thrombotic stroke and should receive appropriate interventions and follow-up care to manage this risk.