The nurse is encouraging a reluctant postoperative patient to deep breathe and cough. Which explanation can the nurse provide that may encourage the patient to comply?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep breathing and coughing help clear out anesthesia, preventing postoperative complications. Deep breathing expands the lungs and increases oxygen levels, while coughing helps clear secretions and prevents pneumonia. Option A is incorrect because it instills fear without providing a direct benefit. Option B is incorrect as it downplays the importance of coughing. Option C is incorrect as clearing the throat does not provide the same benefits as deep breathing and coughing in postoperative patients.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis and tuberculosis. Hepatitis and tuberculosis are infectious diseases that can be transmitted through respiratory droplets or bodily fluids. By reporting these diseases to the transporting crew members, proper precautions can be taken to prevent transmission to others. Shingles, pneumonia, ARDS, sepsis, syphilis, and gonorrhea are not typically transmitted through casual contact during patient transport, so they do not require specific preventive measures by the crew members.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because in ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), prompt reperfusion therapy is crucial to minimize cardiac damage. As the patient has ST-elevation on the ECG, this indicates complete occlusion of a coronary artery, necessitating urgent treatment. Fibrinolytics can help dissolve the clot and restore blood flow, but timing is critical. Time is muscle in STEMI, so the door-to-balloon time or door-to-needle time should be minimized. Destination is also important as the patient needs to be transferred to a facility capable of performing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) if fibrinolytics are not available. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A and D are incorrect because non-ST elevation infarctions do not typically require fibrinolytics, and choice C is incorrect as fluid bolus is not a standard treatment for STEMI.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cranial nerve X (vagus). The vagus nerve is responsible for the gag reflex. A loss of gag reflex in a patient with a closed-head and spinal injury indicates damage to the vagus nerve. The other choices are incorrect because: B (oculomotor) is responsible for eye movement, C (hypoglossal) is responsible for tongue movement, and D (glossopharyngeal) is responsible for swallowing and taste sensation. None of these cranial nerves are directly related to the gag reflex.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lidocaine. Lidocaine is a Class IB antiarrhythmic drug commonly used for ventricular arrhythmias. In cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation, lidocaine can be a suitable alternative to amiodarone. It works by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane and reducing electrical activity. Epinephrine (A) is used for its vasopressor effects, not as a first-line antiarrhythmic. Cardizem (B) is a calcium channel blocker used for rate control in certain arrhythmias, not for ventricular fibrillation. Procainamide (D) is a Class IA antiarrhythmic, also used for certain arrhythmias but not typically a first-line choice for ventricular fibrillation in cardiac arrest.