The nurse is encouraging a reluctant postoperative patient to deep breathe and cough. Which explanation can the nurse provide that may encourage the patient to comply?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep breathing and coughing help clear out anesthesia, preventing complications like respiratory depression. Anesthesia can affect the respiratory system, leading to mucus buildup and decreased lung function. By deep breathing and coughing, the patient can enhance lung expansion and clear out the anesthesia, reducing the risk of respiratory issues postoperatively. Choice A is incorrect because it instills fear without providing a clear rationale for the importance of deep breathing and coughing. Choice B is incorrect as it downplays the frequency needed to effectively clear out anesthesia. Choice C is incorrect because clearing the throat alone does not address the need for deep breathing and coughing to prevent respiratory complications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis and tuberculosis. Both diseases can be transmitted through respiratory droplets and blood, posing a risk to the transporting crew members. Hepatitis can be transmitted through blood or body fluids, while tuberculosis is an airborne disease. Reporting these diseases to the crew members will ensure appropriate precautions are taken to prevent transmission. A: Shingles and pneumonia are not transmitted through casual contact and do not pose a risk to the transporting crew members. C: ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome) and sepsis are not communicable diseases and do not require special precautions during transportation. D: Syphilis and gonorrhea are sexually transmitted infections and do not pose a risk of accidental transmission during patient transport.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because in ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), immediate reperfusion therapy is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and prevent irreversible damage to the heart muscle. Fibrinolytics can be used to achieve this goal, but the time from symptom onset to treatment initiation is critical. Time is muscle in STEMI, so early recognition, prompt activation of the cath lab, and rapid transfer to a PCI-capable hospital are essential. In contrast, non-ST elevation infarctions may not require immediate reperfusion therapy and may respond to medical management initially. Choice A is incorrect because the urgency of treatment is not as time-sensitive in non-STEMI. Choice C is incorrect because fluid bolus is not a standard treatment for STEMI, and choice D is incorrect because the management differs between STEMI and non-STEMI.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cranial nerve X (vagus). The vagus nerve is responsible for the gag reflex, which is a protective mechanism in response to stimuli in the back of the throat. In a closed-head and suspected spinal injury, damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex. Choice B: Cranial nerve III (oculomotor) is involved in eye movements. Choice C: Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal) is responsible for tongue movement. Choice D: Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal) is related to taste sensation and swallowing.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: In the absence of amiodarone, lidocaine is the preferred alternative for ventricular fibrillation. Lidocaine is a Class Ib antiarrhythmic agent that can be used to stabilize cardiac rhythms in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels in the heart, helping to restore a normal heart rhythm. Epinephrine (A) is primarily used for its effects on increasing heart rate and blood pressure during cardiac arrest. Cardizem (B) is a calcium channel blocker and not typically used for ventricular fibrillation. Procainamide (D) is a Class Ia antiarrhythmic drug that is less commonly used for ventricular arrhythmias and is not the preferred alternative in this scenario.