ATI RN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is educating a pregnant client about foods high in iron. Which food should be recommended?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Spinach. 1. Spinach is high in iron, which is important for pregnant women to prevent anemia. 2. Milk (A) does not contain a significant amount of iron. 3. Chicken (B) is a good source of protein but not as high in iron as spinach. 4. Bananas (D) are rich in potassium but not iron, making them a less suitable choice for iron supplementation during pregnancy.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. What lab finding is most concerning?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased potassium. In hyperemesis gravidarum, excessive vomiting can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia. Potassium plays a crucial role in nerve and muscle function, so a low potassium level can result in serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Elevated hematocrit (A) may indicate dehydration, but it is not as immediately concerning as potassium imbalance. Increased white blood cell count (C) may suggest infection but is not directly related to hyperemesis gravidarum. Low fasting blood glucose (D) can occur due to inadequate nutrient intake but is not the most concerning finding in this case.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with suspected chorioamnionitis. What is the priority nursing assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Evaluate fetal heart rate. In chorioamnionitis, fetal distress can occur due to infection and inflammation of the fetal membranes. Monitoring fetal heart rate is crucial to assess the well-being of the baby. Assessing for foul-smelling discharge (A) is important but not the priority. Monitoring maternal blood pressure (B) and checking glucose levels (D) are relevant assessments but do not address the immediate risk of fetal distress in chorioamnionitis.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client in labor with a history of cesarean delivery. What is a priority assessment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess for signs of uterine rupture. This is the priority assessment because a history of cesarean delivery puts the client at higher risk for uterine rupture during labor. Signs of uterine rupture include severe abdominal pain, abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, and vaginal bleeding. Early detection and intervention are crucial for the safety of both the mother and the baby. Monitoring maternal temperature (B) is important but not as critical as assessing for uterine rupture. Checking for signs of preeclampsia (C) is also important but not a priority in this specific scenario. Assessing for excessive fetal movement (D) is not a priority assessment in this case.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is preparing a client for a scheduled cesarean delivery. What is the priority preoperative instruction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Empty your bladder before the procedure. This is the priority preoperative instruction because a full bladder can increase the risk of complications during surgery, such as injury to the bladder or difficulties in catheter insertion. It is essential to ensure the bladder is empty to provide a clear surgical field and prevent urinary retention postoperatively. Explanation for other choices: A: Eating a high-protein meal before surgery is not recommended as it can increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. C: Avoiding brushing teeth on the morning of surgery is not a priority instruction. Maintaining oral hygiene is important, but it does not directly impact the surgical procedure. D: Refraining from taking prescribed medications should be discussed with the healthcare provider, as certain medications may need to be taken even on the day of surgery to prevent complications.