The nurse is educating a client about preterm labor. What symptom should the client report immediately?

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RN Maternal Newborn Online Practice 2019 A Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse is educating a client about preterm labor. What symptom should the client report immediately?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of preterm labor, it is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the warning signs that require immediate attention. Lower back pain and cramping (Option B) are concerning symptoms that could indicate preterm labor. These symptoms may signal the onset of contractions and cervical changes that could lead to premature delivery. It is essential for the client to report this symptom promptly to their healthcare provider to receive timely intervention and prevent preterm birth complications. The other options are not indicative of immediate concern for preterm labor. Frequent urination (Option A) is a common symptom during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and the growing uterus pressing on the bladder. Increased appetite (Option C) is also a typical occurrence in pregnancy and does not signal a potential issue with preterm labor. Braxton Hicks contractions (Option D) are usually irregular and do not cause cervical changes leading to preterm labor. Educationally, it is important for nurses to emphasize the significance of recognizing and reporting warning signs of preterm labor to ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby. Providing clear information about what symptoms require immediate attention empowers the client to take proactive steps in their prenatal care and seek appropriate medical assistance when needed.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client with suspected gestational hypertension. What finding supports this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the assessment of a client with suspected gestational hypertension, a blood pressure reading of 150/90 mmHg supports this diagnosis. Gestational hypertension is characterized by elevated blood pressure that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation without the presence of proteinuria or end-organ damage. Option A is correct because a blood pressure reading of 150/90 mmHg indicates hypertension in pregnancy, which can lead to adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus if not managed appropriately. Option B, proteinuria of +2, is more indicative of preeclampsia rather than gestational hypertension. Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, while gestational hypertension is defined by elevated blood pressure alone. Option C, fetal heart rate of 140 beats/minute, is not directly related to the diagnosis of gestational hypertension. Fetal heart rate monitoring is important for assessing fetal well-being but does not confirm the diagnosis of gestational hypertension. Option D, mild edema in the lower extremities, is a common finding in pregnancy and is not specific to gestational hypertension. Edema alone is not a reliable indicator of this condition. Educationally, understanding the differences between gestational hypertension and preeclampsia is crucial for nurses caring for pregnant clients. Recognizing the key signs and symptoms of each condition is essential for early detection, appropriate management, and optimal outcomes for both the mother and the baby. Regular monitoring of blood pressure and other clinical signs is vital in the antenatal care of women at risk for hypertensive disorders of pregnancy.

Question 3 of 5

A patient who uses a diaphragm as contraception asks if they need to use a backup method. What should the nurse respond?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The diaphragm should be used with spermicide for maximum effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm is effective, spermicide enhances its performance and ensures greater protection. Choice C is unnecessary, as the diaphragm alone with spermicide is sufficient. Choice D is incorrect because while regular replacement is recommended, it does not require a backup method.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse assesses a patient for medical eligibility for contraceptive use. What is the meaning of an MEC score of 2?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: An MEC score of 2 indicates that there is an unacceptable health risk if the contraceptive method is used. This means that the potential health risks associated with using this particular contraceptive method outweigh the benefits. Therefore, the nurse should advise against using this method for contraception due to the elevated health risks involved. It is essential for healthcare providers to meticulously assess the medical eligibility of a patient before recommending any contraceptive method to ensure the safety and well-being of the individual.

Question 5 of 5

The patient asks the nurse when her Nexplanon can be inserted. How does the nurse respond?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse would respond with option A, "after the delivery of your placenta." Nexplanon is a hormonal contraceptive implant that is typically inserted in the upper arm subdermally. It is recommended to wait until after the delivery of the placenta to reduce the risk of causing any harm to the fetus during pregnancy or labor. Inserting Nexplanon during labor or delivery is not recommended due to the potential risks involved.

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