ATI RN
Practice ATI B Exam Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is doing preconception counseling with a patient. The patient asks why she must take folic acid (folate) during pregnancy. What is the nurse's response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
Enrique who is under chemotherapy has the following CBC results: WBC 5000/mm3, RBC platelet 10,000/mm3. Which of the following is he at risk for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count of 10,000/mm3 is critically low and places Enrique at significant risk for bleeding. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and levels below 20,000/mm3 can lead to spontaneous bleeding, such as nosebleeds, gum bleeding, or internal hemorrhage. While a WBC count of 5000/mm3 is within the normal range, reducing the risk of infection, the extremely low platelet count is the primary concern. Angina is unrelated to platelet counts. Therefore, bleeding is the most immediate risk for Enrique.
Question 3 of 5
An 80-year-old man is taking digoxin and warfarin because of longstanding atrial fibrillation. He has an indwelling urinary catheter in situ, whilst awaiting a prostatectomy. At his pre-operation assessment he has a ventricular rate of 120/minute. The house officer doubles his daily digoxin dose and the operation is delayed one week. One week later he returns with nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, abdominal pain, confusion, delirium and visual disturbances. The most likely cause of his current symptoms is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Symptoms (nausea, confusion, visual changes) suggest digoxin toxicity, common in the elderly with doubled doses. Digoxin's narrow therapeutic index (0.5-2 ng/mL) and renal clearance (impaired with age) increase risk. Viral infection lacks cardiac specificity here. Hyperkalemia (e.g., >5.5 mmol/L) isn't indicated without ECG changes. Warfarin's INR prolongation causes bleeding, not these symptoms. UTI fits the catheter but not delirium/visual issues. Digoxin toxicity, from overdose and accumulation, explains the presentation, requiring level checks and cessation.
Question 4 of 5
Regarding phenytoin, all the following are true EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin's oral bioavailability varies due to formulation and absorption, a true statement. It's highly plasma protein-bound (~90%), not poorly, making that false and the exception. Hepatic enzyme inducers (e.g., rifampicin) enhance its metabolism, true. At higher doses, its elimination shifts to zero-order due to saturated metabolism, true. Half-life ranges from 12-36 hours, also true. High protein binding affects free drug levels, critical for therapeutic monitoring, especially in hypoalbuminemia.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse plans medication education for a client who receives a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). What will the best plan by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil (Viagra), a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, has a dosing limit of one pill per 24 hours to avoid risks like prolonged erections or hypotension, a key safety point for education. Grapefruit juice increases sildenafil levels by inhibiting metabolism, not decreasing effects, risking intensified side effects. It's optimally taken 1 hour before sex, effective up to 4 hours-not 6-setting realistic timing expectations. Food, especially high-fat meals, delays absorption, so it's best on an empty stomach. The 24-hour limit ensures safe use, balancing efficacy with minimizing adverse effects, aligning with prescribing standards and making it the priority in client teaching.