The nurse is doing an oral assessment on a 40-year-old patient of African descent and notes the presence of a 1-cm, nontender, greyish-white lesion on the left buccal mucosa. Which of the following about this lesion is true?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Leukoedema is a common benign condition in individuals of African descent. 2. Leukoedema presents as greyish-white lesions on the buccal mucosa. 3. It is typically asymptomatic and does not require treatment. 4. Leukoedema is not associated with any serious health concerns. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B. Hyperpigmentation would present as dark patches, not greyish-white lesions. C. Torus palatinus is a bony growth on the hard palate, not a mucosal lesion. D. Cancerous lesions typically have different characteristics and would require further investigation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Bluish lips indicate cyanosis, a sign of inadequate oxygen supply. 2. Dark line along gingival margin suggests lead poisoning. 3. The nurse should assess for other signs of inadequate oxygen supply to determine the severity and underlying cause. 4. This finding is not normal and requires further evaluation to prevent complications. Summary: A: Checking hemoglobin for anemia is not the immediate priority when cyanosis and lead poisoning are suspected. C: Assuming this is a normal finding can lead to overlooking a potentially serious condition. D: Carbon monoxide exposure could be a consideration, but assessing for overall oxygen supply is more crucial in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In an acute infection, such as streptococcal pharyngitis, the tonsils may exhibit yellowish exudates due to bacterial pus formation. This is consistent with the presence of inflammation and infection. Choices A, B, and C describe varying degrees of tonsillar enlargement and white debris, which could be present in different conditions but are not as specific to acute infection. Therefore, the presence of yellowish exudates on the tonsils is the key indicator of an acute bacterial infection like strep throat.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the presentation of clear vesicles with an erythematous base around them at the lip-skin border is characteristic of herpes simplex virus 1 infection, commonly known as cold sores. Given the patient's recent travel to Hawaii, exposure to the virus is likely. This infection is self-limiting and typically heals in 4 to 10 days without the need for specific treatment. Choice A is incorrect because seeing a skin specialist may not be necessary for a self-limiting viral infection. Choice B is incorrect as a biopsy is not typically indicated for a clear clinical diagnosis of herpes simplex virus infection. Choice D is incorrect as riboflavin deficiency does not present with clear vesicles and erythema at the lip-skin border.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "This is a fungal infection caused by all the antibiotics you've received." The black, hairy tongue is a known side effect of prolonged antibiotic use, which disrupts the balance of normal oral flora and predisposes to fungal overgrowth, specifically of the yeast Candida. Antibiotics can eliminate the competing bacteria that normally keep Candida in check. Therefore, the patient's symptoms are most likely due to a fungal infection related to antibiotic therapy, rather than a bacterial issue or temporary overgrowth of hair. Biopsy is not necessary as the condition is commonly seen in this context and can be managed with appropriate treatment for fungal overgrowth.