ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is discussing the results of a patients diagnostic testing with the nurse practitioner. What Weber test result would indicate the presence of a sensorineural loss?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in sensorineural hearing loss, the sound is heard better in the ear with poorer hearing due to damage to the inner ear or auditory nerve. This is because the brain perceives the sound as louder in the affected ear to compensate for the hearing loss. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the result for conductive hearing loss. Choice B is incorrect as it indicates normal hearing. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the result for a lateralizing conductive hearing loss.
Question 2 of 9
A patient who has been experiencing numerous episodes of unexplained headaches and vomiting has subsequently been referred for testing to rule out a brain tumor. What characteristic of the patients vomiting is most consistent with a brain tumor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's vomiting is unrelated to food intake. In the context of a brain tumor, vomiting that is not related to food intake can indicate increased intracranial pressure affecting the brain's vomiting center. This is known as projectile vomiting. A: Vomiting accompanied by epistaxis (nosebleeds) is more indicative of other conditions like hypertension or nasal issues, not necessarily specific to a brain tumor. B: Vomiting not relieving nausea can be seen in various conditions affecting the gastrointestinal system, not specifically brain tumors. D: Blood-tinged emesis can suggest gastrointestinal bleeding or other issues, but it's not a specific characteristic of vomiting associated with brain tumors.
Question 3 of 9
A patient who had premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) earlier in the pregnancy at 28 weeks returns to the labor unit 1 week later complaining that she is now in labor. The labor and birth nurse performs the NfollRowiIng aGssesBsm.eCntsM. The vaginal exam is deferred until the U S N T O physician is in attendance. The patient is placed on electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) and a baseline FHR of 130 bpm is noted. No contraction pattern is observed. The patient is then transferred to the antepartum unit for continued observation. Several hours later, the patient complains that she does not feel the baby move. Examination of the abdomen reveals a fundal height of 34 cm. Muscle tone is no different from earlier in the hospital admission. The patient is placed on the EFM and no fetal heart tones are observed. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hidden placental abruption. In this scenario, the patient had PROM and is now presenting with decreased fetal movement and absence of fetal heart tones after a fundal height increase. These signs suggest a hidden placental abruption, where the placenta has partially detached, leading to fetal distress and potential fetal demise. The absence of contractions rules out active labor (B) as the cause. Placental previa (A) would typically present with painless vaginal bleeding, which is not described in the scenario. Placental abruption (C) usually presents with painful vaginal bleeding, which is also not mentioned. Therefore, the most likely explanation for the symptoms described is a hidden placental abruption.
Question 4 of 9
While reviewing the health history of an older adult experiencing hearing loss the nurse notes the patient has had no trauma or loss of balance. What aspect of this patients health history is most likely to be linked to the patients hearing deficit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Previous perforation of the eardrum. A perforated eardrum can lead to hearing loss as it affects the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear. This is the most likely link to the patient's hearing deficit as trauma or injury to the eardrum can directly impact hearing. Incorrect choices: A: Recent completion of radiation therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer - Radiation therapy for thyroid cancer typically does not directly affect hearing. B: Routine use of quinine for management of leg cramps - Quinine use is associated with tinnitus (ringing in the ears) but not typically with hearing loss. C: Allergy to hair coloring and hair spray - Allergy to hair products is not directly related to hearing loss. In summary, the most likely cause of the patient's hearing deficit based on the health history provided is the previous perforation of the eardrum, as it directly affects the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a family history of allergies has suffered an allergic response based on a genetic predisposition. This atopic response is usually mediated by what immunoglobulin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immunoglobulin E. The atopic response in allergies is mainly mediated by IgE antibodies. IgE binds to allergens and triggers the release of histamine and other chemicals that cause allergic symptoms. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, IgM is involved in early immune responses, and IgG is important for long-term immunity. IgE is specifically associated with allergic reactions due to its role in sensitizing mast cells and basophils to allergens.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse asks a patient where the pain is, andthe patient responds by pointing to the area of pain. Which form of communication did the patient use?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nonverbal. The patient used nonverbal communication by pointing to the area of pain, which is a form of expressing information without words. This choice is correct because pointing is a nonverbal gesture that conveys a specific message. Verbal communication (A) involves spoken or written words, which were not used in this scenario. Intonation (C) refers to the rise and fall of the voice in speech, which was not demonstrated by the patient. Vocabulary (D) is the range of words known or used by a person, but the patient did not use words to communicate in this situation. In summary, the patient used nonverbal communication through pointing, making choice B the correct answer.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 63-year-old patient with ovarian cancer. The patient is to receive chemotherapy consisting of Taxol and Paraplatin. For what adverse effect of this treatment should the nurse monitor the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Taxol and Paraplatin are known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased white blood cell counts. Leukopenia can increase the patient's risk of infection, so monitoring for signs of infection is crucial. Metabolic acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with Taxol and Paraplatin chemotherapy.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with end-stage heart failure has participated in a family meeting with the interdisciplinary team and opted for hospice care. On what belief should the patients care in this setting be based
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meaningful living during terminal illness is best supported in the home. This is because hospice care focuses on providing compassionate care and support in the comfort of the patient's own home, which can enhance quality of life and dignity. Being in a familiar and comfortable environment allows the patient to receive personalized care and emotional support from family members. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because hospice care emphasizes comfort and quality of life over technologic interventions, designated facilities, and prolonging physiologic dying. Ultimately, the goal of hospice care is to prioritize the patient's emotional and physical well-being during the end stages of life.
Question 9 of 9
Which postpartum patient reqNuUirResS fuIrNthGerT aBss.esCsmOeMnt?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the postpartum patient who has had four saturated pads during the last 12 hours should receive further assessment. This indicates excessive postpartum bleeding (postpartum hemorrhage), which is a critical complication that requires immediate intervention to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring vital signs, assessing for signs of shock, evaluating uterine tone, and determining the cause of bleeding are crucial steps in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Choices B, C, and D are not the correct answers because: B: A patient with Class II heart disease complaining of frequent coughing is more likely experiencing cardiac-related issues and requires evaluation and management by a cardiologist. C: A patient with gestational diabetes and a fasting blood sugar level of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require immediate further assessment. D: A postcesarean patient with active herpes lesions on the labia requires appropriate management of the herpes infection but does not necess