ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is discussing the results of a patients diagnostic testing with the nurse practitioner. What Weber test result would indicate the presence of a sensorineural loss?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in sensorineural hearing loss, the sound is heard better in the ear with poorer hearing due to damage to the inner ear or auditory nerve. This is because the brain perceives the sound as louder in the affected ear to compensate for the hearing loss. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the result for conductive hearing loss. Choice B is incorrect as it indicates normal hearing. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the result for a lateralizing conductive hearing loss.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient newly diagnosed with Bells palsy. The nurses plan of care should address what characteristic manifestation of this disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial paralysis. Bell's palsy is characterized by sudden, temporary weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side of the face. This manifests as drooping of the eyelid and corner of the mouth, difficulty smiling or closing the eye. Tinnitus (A) is ringing in the ears, not a common symptom of Bell's palsy. Pain at the base of the tongue (C) is not a typical manifestation of Bell's palsy. Diplopia (D) is double vision, which is not a primary symptom of Bell's palsy. Therefore, the correct manifestation to address in the plan of care for a patient with Bell's palsy is facial paralysis.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has just returned to the unit from the PACU after surgery for a tumor within the spine. The patient complains of pain. When positioning the patient for comfort and to reduce injury to the surgical site, the nurse will position to patient in what position?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In a flat side-lying position. Rationale: 1. A flat side-lying position helps reduce pressure on the surgical site, promoting comfort and preventing injury. 2. This position minimizes strain on the spine and supports proper alignment. 3. High Fowlers position may increase pressure on the surgical area due to increased intra-abdominal pressure. 4. Trendelenberg position and reverse Trendelenberg position are not appropriate for spine surgery patients as they can cause increased blood flow to the surgical site, leading to potential complications.
Question 4 of 9
An oncology nurse is contributing to the care of a patient who has failed to respond appreciably to conventional cancer treatments. As a result, the care team is considering the possible use of biologic response modifiers (BRFs). The nurse should know that these achieve a therapeutic effect by what means?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focusing the patient's immune system exclusively on the tumor. Biologic response modifiers (BRMs) work by enhancing the body's natural defenses to target and attack cancer cells specifically. This approach helps the immune system to recognize and destroy cancer cells while minimizing harm to normal cells. A: Promoting the synthesis and release of leukocytes - This is not the primary mechanism of action for BRMs. While leukocytes play a role in the immune response, BRMs target the immune system's response to tumors. C: Potentiating the effects of chemotherapeutic agents and radiation therapy - While some BRMs may be used in combination with these treatments, their primary mode of action is not to enhance the effects of chemotherapy or radiation therapy. D: Altering the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the patient - This choice is too broad and vague. BRMs specifically aim to direct the immune response towards targeting the tumor cells, rather than altering the overall immunologic relationship
Question 5 of 9
Which postpartum patient reqNuUirResS fuIrNthGerT aBss.esCsmOeMnt?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the postpartum patient who has had four saturated pads during the last 12 hours should receive further assessment. This indicates excessive postpartum bleeding (postpartum hemorrhage), which is a critical complication that requires immediate intervention to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring vital signs, assessing for signs of shock, evaluating uterine tone, and determining the cause of bleeding are crucial steps in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Choices B, C, and D are not the correct answers because: B: A patient with Class II heart disease complaining of frequent coughing is more likely experiencing cardiac-related issues and requires evaluation and management by a cardiologist. C: A patient with gestational diabetes and a fasting blood sugar level of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require immediate further assessment. D: A postcesarean patient with active herpes lesions on the labia requires appropriate management of the herpes infection but does not necess
Question 6 of 9
A hospital nurse has experienced percutaneous exposure to an HIV-positive patients blood as a result of a needlestick injury. The nurse has informed the supervisor and identified the patient. What action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report to the emergency department or employee health department. 1. Immediate action is crucial after exposure to HIV-positive blood. 2. Reporting to the emergency department or employee health department ensures prompt evaluation and appropriate management. 3. The supervisor should also be informed to initiate the necessary protocols. 4. The other choices are incorrect: - A: Chlorhexidine may not be sufficient for post-exposure prophylaxis. - C: Hydrocolloid dressing is not appropriate for managing needlestick injuries. - D: Following up with the primary care provider may cause delays in receiving timely post-exposure prophylaxis.
Question 7 of 9
A family member of a patient diagnosed with Huntington disease calls you at the clinic. She is requesting help from the Huntingtons Disease Society of America. What kind of help can this patient and family receive from this organization? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Information about this disease. The Huntington's Disease Society of America provides valuable resources such as educational materials, support groups, and updates on research. This information can help patients and families understand the disease better and navigate available treatment options. Referrals, public education, individual assessments, and appraisals of research studies are not typically services provided directly by the organization, making them incorrect choices in this context.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is using Campinha-Bacote’s model of cultural competency to improve cultural care. Which actions describe the components the nurse is using?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: In Campinha-Bacote's model, the first component is "cultural awareness," which involves an in-depth self-examination of one's own background. Step 2: This self-examination helps nurses recognize their biases and assumptions, enabling them to provide culturally competent care. Step 3: By understanding their own culture, nurses can better understand and respect the cultural beliefs and practices of their patients. Step 4: This component is crucial for building trust and rapport with patients from diverse backgrounds. Step 5: Choices B, C, and D do not directly align with the cultural awareness component of Campinha-Bacote's model. B focuses on assessment, C on understanding diverse groups, and D on motivation, but they do not address the foundational self-examination required for cultural competency.
Question 9 of 9
A patient who is scheduled for an open prostatectomy is concerned about the potential effects of the surgery on his sexual function. What aspect of prostate surgery should inform the nurses response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Prostate surgery can damage nerves responsible for erectile function. Step 2: Nerve damage can lead to erectile dysfunction post-prostatectomy. Step 3: Choice B correctly states that all prostatectomies carry a risk of nerve damage and consequent erectile dysfunction, aligning with the potential impact of surgery on sexual function. Step 4: Other choices lack accuracy: A incorrectly attributes erectile dysfunction solely to hormonal changes, C falsely suggests temporary nature of dysfunction, and D wrongly claims no risk of dysfunction due to modern techniques.