ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is discharging a patient home after surgery for trigeminal neuralgia. What advice should the nurse provide to this patient in order to reduce the risk of injury?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Trigeminal neuralgia involves severe facial pain, often triggered by touch or movement. Step 2: Rubbing the eye on the affected side can trigger pain due to the trigeminal nerve involvement. Step 3: Therefore, advising the patient to avoid rubbing the eye on the affected side is crucial to prevent pain exacerbation and potential injury. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the risk of injury related to trigeminal neuralgia.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is being discharged home after a hysterectomy. When providing discharge education for this patient, the nurse has cautioned the patient against sitting for long periods. This advice addresses the patients risk of what surgical complication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Venous thromboembolism. After a hysterectomy, patients are at increased risk for developing blood clots due to decreased mobility and pressure on the veins. Sitting for long periods can further increase this risk by slowing blood flow. Pudendal nerve damage (A) is not a common complication of hysterectomy. Fatigue (B) is a common postoperative symptom but not directly related to sitting for long periods. Hemorrhage (D) is a potential complication of hysterectomy but is not specifically related to sitting for long periods.
Question 3 of 9
A woman aged 48 years comes to the clinic because she has discovered a lump in her breast. After diagnostic testing, the woman receives a diagnosis of breast cancer. The woman asks the nurse when her teenage daughters should begin mammography. What is the nurses best advice?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Age 48. This recommendation aligns with the current guidelines from major health organizations, such as the American Cancer Society, which suggest that women at average risk should start regular mammograms at age 45 to 54. Screening before age 45 may lead to unnecessary procedures due to false positives. Beginning at age 48 allows for early detection without subjecting the daughters to unnecessary testing at a younger age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they suggest starting mammography at younger ages than recommended, which can increase the likelihood of false positives and unnecessary interventions.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is teaching preventative measures for otitis externa to a group of older adults. What action should the nurse encourage?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rinsing the ears with normal saline after swimming. This is because rinsing with normal saline helps to remove excess moisture and debris, preventing bacterial growth that can lead to otitis externa. Avoiding loud noises (B) is important for overall ear health but does not specifically prevent otitis externa. Instilling antibiotic ointments regularly (C) is not recommended as it can disrupt the ear's natural flora. Avoiding cotton swabs (D) is important to prevent injury but does not directly prevent otitis externa.
Question 5 of 9
When reviewing the electronic health record of a female patient, the nurse reads that the patient has a history of adenomyosis. The nurse should be aware that this patient experiences symptoms resulting from what pathophysiologic process?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Invasion of the uterine wall by endometrial tissue. Adenomyosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows into the muscular wall of the uterus, causing symptoms like heavy menstrual bleeding and severe cramping. This process results in inflammation, thickening of the uterine wall, and can lead to enlargement of the uterus. Choice A: Loss of muscle tone in the vaginal wall is incorrect because adenomyosis does not involve the vaginal wall. Choice B: Excessive synthesis and release of unopposed estrogen is incorrect because although estrogen can contribute to the growth of endometrial tissue, it is not the primary pathophysiologic process in adenomyosis. Choice D: Proliferation of tumors in the uterine wall is incorrect because adenomyosis does not involve the growth of tumors, but rather the infiltration of endometrial tissue into the uterine muscle.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has been referred to the breast clinic after her most recent mammogram revealed the presence of a lump. The lump is found to be a small, well-defined nodule in the right breast. The oncology nurse should recognize the likelihood of what treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lumpectomy and radiation. For a small, well-defined nodule in the breast, lumpectomy (removal of the lump) followed by radiation therapy is usually the treatment of choice for early-stage breast cancer. This approach aims to preserve the breast while ensuring effective treatment. Partial mastectomy (B) involves removing a larger portion of the breast tissue and is not typically necessary for a small, well-defined nodule. Chemotherapy (C) is generally used for more advanced stages of breast cancer or when the cancer has spread beyond the breast. Total mastectomy (D) is considered when the cancer is more extensive or in cases where lumpectomy is not feasible.
Question 7 of 9
In the past three to four decades, nursing has moved into the forefront in providing care for the dying. Which phenomenon has most contributed to this increased focus of care of the dying?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Demographic changes in the population. This is because as the population ages, there is a higher prevalence of chronic illnesses and an increased number of people facing end-of-life care needs. This has led to a greater demand for palliative and hospice care services, shifting the focus of nursing towards providing care for the dying. A: Increased incidence of infections and acute illnesses is not the primary factor contributing to the increased focus on care for the dying. While these conditions do require nursing care, they do not directly explain the shift in focus. B: Increased focus of health care providers on disease prevention is important but does not directly explain the increased attention on care for the dying. Disease prevention aims to reduce the incidence of illnesses, not necessarily address end-of-life care needs. C: Larger numbers of people dying in hospital settings may be a consequence of the increased focus on care for the dying, but it is not the underlying phenomenon driving the shift in nursing care towards end-of
Question 8 of 9
Which major neonatal complication is carefully monitored after the birth of the infant of a diabetic mother?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypoglycemia. Infants of diabetic mothers are at risk for hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin production in response to high glucose levels in utero. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent hypoglycemia-related complications. B: Hypercalcemia is not a major neonatal complication seen in infants of diabetic mothers. C: Hypoinsulinemia refers to low levels of insulin, which is not typically a concern in infants of diabetic mothers. D: Hypobilirubinemia is not a common complication in infants of diabetic mothers. In summary, monitoring for hypoglycemia is essential in infants of diabetic mothers to prevent potential complications.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is working with a patient who was diagnosed with HIV several months earlier. The nurse should recognize that a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS at the point when the CD4+ T- lymphocyte cell count drops below what threshold?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (200 cells/mm3 of blood) because a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS when their CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell count drops below 200 cells/mm3. This threshold signifies a significant decrease in the immune system's ability to fight off infections and indicates progression to AIDS. Choice A (75 cells/mm3 of blood) is incorrect because this level is extremely low and would indicate severe immunosuppression, likely leading to AIDS much earlier than anticipated. Choice C (325 cells/mm3 of blood) and D (450 cells/mm3 of blood) are also incorrect as these levels are within the normal range or slightly lower, which would not meet the criteria for a diagnosis of AIDS.