The nurse is discharging a patient home after mastoid surgery. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

Questions 101

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

foundation of nursing questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse is discharging a patient home after mastoid surgery. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Don't blow your nose for 2 to 3 weeks." After mastoid surgery, blowing the nose can increase pressure in the surgical area and disrupt healing. Here's the rationale: 1. Blowing the nose can increase pressure in the surgical area and lead to complications. 2. Avoiding blowing the nose helps prevent infection and reduces the risk of damaging the surgical site. 3. It is essential to follow this instruction to promote proper healing and reduce the chances of postoperative complications. In summary, the other choices are incorrect because inducing a sneeze, exercising, and avoiding side-lying position do not directly relate to the specific care needs after mastoid surgery.

Question 2 of 9

A placenta previa when the placental edge just reaches the internal os is called

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, marginal. Placenta previa is classified based on the proximity of the placental edge to the internal os. In a marginal placenta previa, the placental edge just reaches the internal os. This is a crucial distinction as it poses a higher risk for bleeding during labor. Total placenta previa covers the entire internal os, partial placenta previa partially covers the internal os, and low-lying placenta is when the placenta is close to but not covering the internal os. Therefore, D is correct as it accurately describes the specific position of the placenta edge in relation to the internal os in cases of marginal placenta previa.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with a new diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is overwhelmed by his diagnosis and the known complications of the disease. How can the patient best make known his wishes for care as his disease progresses?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prepare an advance directive. This allows the patient to document their healthcare preferences in advance, ensuring their wishes are known and honored as the disease progresses. It provides clear instructions for healthcare providers and family members, reducing potential conflicts and ensuring the patient's autonomy is respected. Choice B is incorrect as designating an MRP focuses on medical decision-making but may not capture the full range of the patient's care preferences. Choice C involves collaboration with an organization, which may not fully represent the patient's individual wishes. Choice D is incorrect as witnesses are not always necessary for providing instructions, and the presence of witnesses does not guarantee that the patient's wishes will be followed accurately.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is providing care for a patient who has a diagnosis of hereditary angioedema. When planning this patients care, what nursing diagnosis should be prioritized?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for Impaired Gas Exchange Related to Airway Obstruction. This should be prioritized because hereditary angioedema can lead to swelling in the airway, potentially causing respiratory distress and compromising gas exchange. This nursing diagnosis addresses the immediate threat to the patient's respiratory function. A: Risk for Infection Related to Skin Sloughing - While skin sloughing can occur with hereditary angioedema, it is not the priority over ensuring adequate gas exchange. B: Risk for Acute Pain Related to Loss of Skin Integrity - Pain management is important, but addressing airway obstruction takes precedence due to the potential for respiratory compromise. C: Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Cutaneous Lesions - Skin integrity issues may be present but do not pose as immediate a threat as airway obstruction.

Question 5 of 9

When reviewing the electronic health record of a female patient, the nurse reads that the patient has a history of adenomyosis. The nurse should be aware that this patient experiences symptoms resulting from what pathophysiologic process?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Invasion of the uterine wall by endometrial tissue. Adenomyosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows into the muscular wall of the uterus, causing symptoms like heavy menstrual bleeding and severe cramping. This process results in inflammation, thickening of the uterine wall, and can lead to enlargement of the uterus. Choice A: Loss of muscle tone in the vaginal wall is incorrect because adenomyosis does not involve the vaginal wall. Choice B: Excessive synthesis and release of unopposed estrogen is incorrect because although estrogen can contribute to the growth of endometrial tissue, it is not the primary pathophysiologic process in adenomyosis. Choice D: Proliferation of tumors in the uterine wall is incorrect because adenomyosis does not involve the growth of tumors, but rather the infiltration of endometrial tissue into the uterine muscle.

Question 6 of 9

Anti-infective prophylaxis is indicated for a pregnant patient with a history of mitral valve stenosis related to rheumatic heart disease because the patient is at risk of developing

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: bacterial endocarditis. Mitral valve stenosis increases the risk of bacterial endocarditis due to turbulent blood flow and potential damage to the heart valve. Prophylactic antibiotics are recommended before certain procedures to prevent bacterial endocarditis in patients with underlying cardiac conditions. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect as mitral valve stenosis does not directly increase the risk of developing hypertension. Choice B, postpartum infection, is not directly related to the risk associated with mitral valve stenosis. Choice D, upper respiratory infections, is not a specific risk associated with mitral valve stenosis in pregnant patients.

Question 7 of 9

While taking a health history on a 20-year-old female patient, the nurse ascertains that this patient is taking miconazole (Monistat). The nurse is justified in presuming that this patient has what medical condition?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): The nurse can presume the patient has candidiasis since miconazole is commonly used to treat fungal infections like vaginal yeast infections caused by Candida. This medication works by stopping the growth of the fungus. Therefore, the patient's use of miconazole indicates a probable diagnosis of candidiasis. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A (Bacterial vaginosis): Miconazole is not used to treat bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, which is caused by an imbalance of bacteria in the vagina. B (HPV): Miconazole is not used to treat viral infections like HPV, which is a sexually transmitted infection caused by certain types of human papillomavirus. D (TSS): Miconazole is not used to treat toxic shock syndrome, which is a severe complication of certain bacterial infections and is not typically associated with miconazole use.

Question 8 of 9

A patient has been admitted to the hospital numerous times. The nurse asks the patient to share a personal story about the care that has been received. Which interaction is the nurse using?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Narrative. The nurse is using a narrative interaction by asking the patient to share a personal story. This helps the patient express their experiences, emotions, and perspectives, promoting a deeper understanding of their care needs. A: Nonjudgmental is incorrect as it focuses on avoiding biases. B: Socializing is incorrect as it implies casual conversation. D: SBAR is incorrect as it stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation, used for concise communication in healthcare settings.

Question 9 of 9

A 35-year-old father of three tells the nurse that he wants information on a vasectomy. What would the nurse tell him about ejaculate after a vasectomy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: There is no noticeable decrease in the amount of ejaculate even though it contains no sperm. After a vasectomy, the vas deferens, the tube that carries sperm from the testicles, is cut or blocked. This prevents sperm from being ejaculated, but the seminal fluid produced by the prostate and other glands still makes up the majority of the ejaculate volume. Therefore, although the ejaculate does not contain sperm after a vasectomy, there is no significant change in the amount of fluid ejaculated. Choice A is incorrect because the absence of sperm does not impact the volume of ejaculate. Choice C is incorrect as there is no marked decrease in ejaculate volume. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest that the viscosity of ejaculate changes post-vasectomy.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days