ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is discharging a 35-year-old patient with diabetes who has been prescribed an adrenergic blocking agent. What is the priority teaching point for the nurse to discuss with this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: It is important for the patient to be instructed to monitor blood sugar levels more frequently because adrenergic blocking agents mask the normal hypo- and hyperglycemic manifestations that normally alert patients such as sweating, feeling tense, increased heart rate, and rapid breathing. There is no need to change the diet or the diabetic medications. There may be no signs and symptoms to record because they are blocked by the adrenergic blocker. The nurse should emphasize the importance of frequent blood glucose monitoring and reporting any instability to the healthcare provider.
Question 2 of 5
Gold sodium thiomalate is prescribed to a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following side effects indicates an overdose of the medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A client is prescribed with carbamazepine (Tegretol) for the treatment of bipolar disorder. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the client is experiencing a side effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Carbamazepine can cause leukopenia, including neutropenia, as a side effect. A neutrophil count of 1,200/mm3 is below the normal range and indicates a potential adverse effect. Platelet count, uric acid, and SGPT levels are within normal ranges and do not indicate side effects. Therefore, the neutrophil count is the concerning result.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following drugs causes the most significant inhibition of metabolism of rifabutin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rifabutin, metabolized by CYP3A4, is affected by inhibitors. Zidovudine, enfuvirtide, and nevirapine don't strongly inhibit CYP3A4. St John's wort induces it, lowering levels. Ritonavir, a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor, significantly slows rifabutin metabolism, raising levels and toxicity risk (e.g., uveitis), the most impactful. This interaction requires dose adjustment, critical in HIV-TB co-treatment.
Question 5 of 5
Regarding drugs used in the treatment of status epilepsy:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenytoin controls status epilepticus via anticonvulsant action, not sedation, so that's false. It precipitates in dextrose, only saline-compatible, making that false. Diazepam's effect is short-lived, not long-lasting, so that's incorrect. Phenobarbitone commonly causes respiratory depression, a true statement, due to CNS suppression. Phenytoin's rate is 50 mg/min max. This side effect limits phenobarbitone's use, requiring ventilatory support in status management.