ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should include information about which hormone lacking in clients with diabetes insipidus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: antidiuretic hormone (ADH). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of ADH, which regulates water balance by reducing urine output. Without ADH, excessive urination and thirst occur. FSH, TSH, and LH are not related to water balance regulation. FSH and LH are involved in reproductive functions, while TSH regulates thyroid hormone production. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the importance of ADH in managing diabetes insipidus.
Question 2 of 9
A client in the terminal stage of cancer is receiving continuous infusion of morphine (Duramorph) for pain management. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. Morphine is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates hypoventilation, which is a potential adverse effect of morphine. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure or arrest. A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine in 8 hours is not directly related to morphine's adverse effects. Morphine can cause urinary retention, not increased voiding. C: Irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within normal range and not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Morphine can cause bradycardia or tachycardia, but not irregular heart rate specifically. D: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its effect on the central nervous system. This finding does not suggest an adverse effect; it is an expected pharmac
Question 3 of 9
A client diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) comes to the emergency department with severe back pain. She reports that she first felt pain after manually opening her garage door and that she is taking prednisone daily. When adverse effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy is most likely responsible for the pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osteoporosis. Long-term corticosteroid therapy, such as prednisone, is known to cause bone loss and increase the risk of osteoporosis. Corticosteroids inhibit bone formation and increase bone resorption, leading to decreased bone density and increased fracture risk, which can manifest as severe back pain. Incorrect choices: A: Hypertension - Corticosteroids can cause fluid retention and sodium retention, leading to hypertension, but it is not typically associated with severe back pain. B: Muscle wasting - Corticosteroids can lead to muscle weakness, but severe back pain is not typically related to muscle wasting. D: Truncal obesity - Corticosteroids can cause weight gain, especially in the trunk area, but this is not directly responsible for severe back pain.
Question 4 of 9
The nursing staff has a team conference on AIDS and discusses the routes of transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HSV). The discussion reveals that an individual has no risk of exposure to HIV when that individual;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Having intercourse with just the spouse means a monogamous relationship with a trusted partner, minimizing risk of exposure to HIV. 2. It eliminates the risk of contracting HIV from multiple sexual partners. 3. This choice adheres to safer sex practices by reducing the chances of exposure to HIV. 4. This choice also promotes trust and communication within the relationship, further reducing the risk of HIV transmission. Summary: - Choice A is correct as it promotes monogamy and reduces the risk of exposure to HIV. - Choices B, C, and D do not guarantee zero risk of HIV transmission as blood donations, HIV antibodies, and condom use can still pose risks if not used or implemented correctly.
Question 5 of 9
What would be the most appropriate intervention for a patient with aphasia who state, "I want a ..." and then stops?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wait for the patient to complete the sentence. This is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with aphasia because rushing the patient or providing suggestions can be counterproductive. Waiting allows the patient time to find the words they are looking for and encourages communication. It shows respect for the patient's autonomy and gives them the opportunity to express themselves fully. Choice B may overwhelm the patient, Choice C disrupts the communication process, and Choice D may not align with the patient's intended communication. Patience and support are key in aiding a patient with aphasia.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because during the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse gathers a comprehensive database of information about the patient's health status. This includes collecting subjective and objective data to form a baseline for further decision-making. Identifying nursing diagnoses (B) occurs in the second phase (diagnosis), intervening based on priorities of patient care (C) is part of the third phase (planning), and determining outcomes (D) is done in the final phase (evaluation). Therefore, completing a comprehensive database is the most appropriate action in the first phase.
Question 7 of 9
What are the signs of organ rejection a nurse should closely monitor for when caring for a client after heart transplantation? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a common sign of organ rejection after heart transplantation, indicating possible heart failure. Low white blood cell count (A) is not typically a direct sign of organ rejection. ECG changes (C) may occur but are not specific to organ rejection. Fever (D) is a non-specific symptom and can be caused by various factors. Dyspnea is a key indicator that the transplanted heart is not functioning properly and should be closely monitored.
Question 8 of 9
A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. The thymus gland is often found to be abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis, and removing it through thymectomy can lead to substantial remission of symptoms. This is because the thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and may be producing antibodies that attack neuromuscular junctions in myasthenia gravis. Choice A, esophagostomy, is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the esophagus for feeding and has no direct impact on myasthenia gravis. Choice C, myomectomy, is the removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis as the spleen is not implicated in the disease process.
Question 9 of 9
Several hours after returning from surgery, the nurse tells the patient that she is ordered to be ambulated. The patient asks, “Why?” Which of the following complications would the nurse correctly explain can be prevented by early postoperative ambulation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pneumonia. Early postoperative ambulation helps prevent pneumonia by promoting lung expansion, increasing oxygenation, and preventing atelectasis. A: Increased peristalsis is unrelated to ambulation. B: Coughing is important for airway clearance but not directly related to ambulation. D: Wound healing is influenced by various factors, but ambulation primarily impacts respiratory function.