ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should include information about which hormone lacking in clients with diabetes insipidus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: antidiuretic hormone (ADH). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of ADH, which regulates water balance by reducing urine output. Without ADH, excessive urination and thirst occur. FSH, TSH, and LH are not related to water balance regulation. FSH and LH are involved in reproductive functions, while TSH regulates thyroid hormone production. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the importance of ADH in managing diabetes insipidus.
Question 2 of 9
A client has cancer that has me tastasized to her bones. She is complaining of increased thirst, polyuria and decreased muscle tone. Her lab values are: Na 139mEq/L, k 4 mEq/L, Cl 103 mEq/L, and Ca 8 mg/dl. What electrolyte imbalance is present?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypercalcemia. Increased thirst and polyuria are symptoms of hypercalcemia, as excess calcium can lead to dehydration and increased urine output. Decreased muscle tone is also a common symptom of hypercalcemia. The lab value of Ca 8 mg/dl confirms high levels of calcium in the blood. Incorrect choices: A: Hypocalcemia - This is incorrect as the lab value of Ca 8 mg/dl indicates normal to high levels of calcium, ruling out hypocalcemia. B: Hyperkalemia - This is incorrect as the lab value of K 4 mEq/L is within normal range, ruling out hyperkalemia. D: Hypochloremia - This is incorrect as the lab value of Cl 103 mEq/L is within normal range, ruling out hypochloremia.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of heart failure. The patient reports that she has had increasing fatigue during the past 2 weeks. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this fatigue?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased cardiac output. Fatigue in heart failure is primarily due to decreased cardiac output, leading to reduced oxygen and nutrient delivery to tissues, causing fatigue. Dyspnea (A) is shortness of breath, not fatigue. Dry cough (C) is more associated with conditions like pulmonary issues, not fatigue. Orthopnea (D) is difficulty breathing while lying down, not specifically related to fatigue. Hence, decreased cardiac output is the most likely cause of fatigue in this patient.
Question 4 of 9
A complete blood count is commonly performed before a client goes into surgery. What does this test seek to identify?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): A complete blood count (CBC) is used to identify abnormalities in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels are part of a CBC and indicate the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Abnormally low HCT and Hb levels can signify conditions like anemia, which can impact a client's ability to undergo surgery due to potential complications related to oxygen delivery. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Potential hepatic dysfunction is not directly related to a CBC, and BUN/creatinine levels are markers for kidney function, not liver function. B: Low levels of urine constituents are not assessed in a CBC, which focuses on blood components. D: Electrolyte imbalance is not specifically tested in a CBC; it is usually evaluated through separate blood tests. Coagulation factors are not directly measured in a CBC.
Question 5 of 9
A factory worker suffered a chemical burn to the eye and arrives at the Emergency department. What is the first action of the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: flush the eye continuously with sterile solution. This is the first action because it helps to remove the chemical from the eye, preventing further damage. Flushing with sterile solution dilutes and washes away the chemical, reducing the risk of ongoing injury. Applying a cold compress (A) may help with pain but does not address the chemical exposure. Applying a bandage (B) can trap the chemical and worsen the injury. Performing an assessment (C) should come after immediate treatment to ensure proper care but should not delay flushing the eye.
Question 6 of 9
A man with a history of diabetes and chronic lung disease is admitted to the hospital with prostate cancer. He has all the following symptoms. Which should the nurse address first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory rate 36/min. In this case, the nurse should address the respiratory rate first due to the patient's chronic lung disease, indicating potential respiratory distress. High respiratory rate may signify hypoxia, infection, or worsening lung function, posing immediate life-threatening risks. Addressing this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Fever (A) and difficulty urinating (B) are important but not as urgent as addressing potential respiratory distress. Painful legs and feet (D) may indicate peripheral neuropathy related to diabetes, which is important but not as critical as addressing the respiratory issue.
Question 7 of 9
A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. The thymus gland is often found to be abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis, and removing it through thymectomy can lead to substantial remission of symptoms. This is because the thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and may be producing antibodies that attack neuromuscular junctions in myasthenia gravis. Choice A, esophagostomy, is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the esophagus for feeding and has no direct impact on myasthenia gravis. Choice C, myomectomy, is the removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis as the spleen is not implicated in the disease process.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Completes a comprehensive database. In the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse collects data to form a comprehensive database about the patient's health status. This step is crucial as it provides the foundation for identifying nursing diagnoses, planning interventions, and evaluating outcomes. Identifying nursing diagnoses (B) occurs in the second phase (diagnosis), intervening based on priorities of patient care (C) is part of the third phase (planning), and determining whether outcomes have been achieved (D) is in the fourth phase (evaluation). Completing a comprehensive database in the first phase ensures a thorough understanding of the patient's needs before proceeding to the next steps in the nursing process.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with HIV who has diarrhea. Which of the following would be most therapeutic to teach the patient to avoid in the diet to reduce diarrhea?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raw fruits and vegetables. Patients with HIV and diarrhea should avoid raw fruits and vegetables due to their high fiber content, which can exacerbate diarrhea symptoms. Fiber can increase bowel movements and worsen diarrhea. Therefore, avoiding raw fruits and vegetables can help reduce diarrhea. Choice A (Potassium-rich food) is not the best answer because potassium-rich foods are important for patients with HIV to maintain electrolyte balance. Choice B (Liquid nutritional supplements) can actually be beneficial in providing essential nutrients to patients with HIV. Choice D (Frozen products) is not directly related to diarrhea management in patients with HIV.