The nurse is determining a patient's gastric residual before administering an enteral feeding; the last feeding was 240 mL. The patient will be discharged on enteral feedings. It is important to include in the teaching plan that a residual of more than which amount would indicate delayed gastric emptying (based on the last feeding)?

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Introduction to Pharmacology ATI Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse is determining a patient's gastric residual before administering an enteral feeding; the last feeding was 240 mL. The patient will be discharged on enteral feedings. It is important to include in the teaching plan that a residual of more than which amount would indicate delayed gastric emptying (based on the last feeding)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 2 of 5

A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate therapy for the control of preeclampsia. A nurse discovers that the client is encountering toxicity from the medication in which of the following assessments?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity can cause respiratory depression, which is indicated by a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute or less. This is a life-threatening complication requiring immediate intervention. Deep tendon reflexes are typically absent in severe toxicity, not present. A urine output of 25 ml/hr may indicate renal impairment but is not specific to magnesium toxicity. A serum magnesium level of 7 mEq/L is elevated but does not alone confirm toxicity without clinical symptoms. Therefore, respiratory depression is the key indicator.

Question 3 of 5

A 20-year-old woman who is 15 weeks pregnant is admitted feverish and dehydrated with acute severe asthma associated with a community-acquired pneumonia. She has a history of angioedema following a cephalosporin. Which of the following is not appropriate therapy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Acute asthma and pneumonia in pregnancy require urgent care. IV crystalloids rehydrate, safe and necessary. High FiO2 (40%) supports oxygenation in asthma/pneumonia, appropriate. Nebulized salbutamol, a beta-agonist, relieves bronchospasm, standard and safe. IV hydrocortisone reduces inflammation, suitable. IV gentamicin, an aminoglycoside, treats pneumonia but is inappropriate due to cephalosporin cross-reactivity risk (angioedema history) and fetal ototoxicity concerns, making it unsafe here. Alternative antibiotics (e.g., macrolides) are preferred, prioritizing maternal and fetal safety.

Question 4 of 5

Regarding calcium channel blockers:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: All calcium channel blockers (CCBs) like verapamil and nifedipine are orally active, so that's false. Half-lives vary (e.g., nifedipine ~2-5 hours, diltiazem longer), not uniformly 8-12 hours, making that false. They block L-type voltage-gated calcium channels, reducing vascular and cardiac contractility, a true statement. They relax bronchiolar smooth muscle, not unaffected, so that's false. Dihydropyridines cause reflex tachycardia, not bradycardia. The L-type blockade is their unifying mechanism, key to antihypertensive and antianginal effects.

Question 5 of 5

The goal of androgen therapy in men is to

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Androgen therapy, typically testosterone, aims to increase libido and treat erectile dysfunction in men with hypogonadism, restoring sexual drive. Decreasing libido opposes its intent. It doesn't release FSH or increase LH-exogenous testosterone suppresses these via feedback. Boosting libido corrects deficiency symptoms, improving quality of life, a primary clinical goal.

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