The nurse is describing how to perform a testicular self-examination to a patient. Which statement is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it emphasizes the importance of seeking medical advice if any abnormalities are detected during the self-examination. This statement encourages prompt action and follow-up with a healthcare provider, which is crucial for early detection and treatment of testicular cancer. Incorrect options: A: Timing of the examination is not as critical as the action to take if abnormalities are found. C: Describing the testicle's shape and texture is not the primary focus of a testicular self-examination. D: Performing the examination once a week is excessive and not recommended by medical guidelines.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because clavulanic acid acts as a beta-lactamase inhibitor, protecting amoxicillin from being destroyed by beta-lactamase enzymes produced by bacteria. This allows amoxicillin to effectively kill the bacteria. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clavulanic acid does not prevent renal excretion of amoxicillin, destroy bacteria directly, or counteract adverse effects of amoxicillin. The primary purpose of combining clavulanic acid with amoxicillin is to enhance amoxicillin's effectiveness by preventing its degradation by bacterial enzymes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzathine penicillin. The treatment of choice for syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum is penicillin. Benzathine penicillin is preferred due to its long-acting nature, providing sustained therapeutic levels. It is given as a single dose for early-stage syphilis. Ceftriaxone, vancomycin, and aztreonam are not effective against Treponema pallidum and are not recommended for the treatment of syphilis. Benzathine penicillin remains the first-line treatment due to its efficacy and established effectiveness against syphilis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and vomiting. Oral ampicillin commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting due to its impact on the gut flora. This side effect is a result of the antibiotic's mechanism of action and is well-documented in clinical practice. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as loose bowel movements, constipation, and urticaria are not typically associated with oral ampicillin use.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Interaction with the viral M2 protein. Amantadine blocks the M2 ion channel of the influenza A virus, preventing the release of viral RNA into the host cell. This inhibits the viral replication process. Option A is incorrect as amantadine does not target viral protease enzymes. Option B is incorrect as amantadine does not inhibit viral RNA-mediated DNA synthesis, which is a process specific to retroviruses. Option D is incorrect as amantadine does not interact with virus-directed thymidine kinase, which is involved in the activation of certain antiviral medications.