The nurse is creating a plan of care for a patient with a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which is a potential nursing diagnosis for the patient taking antihypertensive medications?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is a potential nursing diagnosis for a patient taking antihypertensive medications. Many antihypertensive medications, especially certain classes like beta-blockers and diuretics, may cause adverse effects such as sexual dysfunction. These medications can impact a patient's libido, sexual arousal, and ability to achieve or maintain an erection, leading to sexual problems. Therefore, sexual dysfunction is an important consideration when caring for a patient with hypertension who is prescribed antihypertensive medications. It is crucial for the nurse to assess, monitor, and address any sexual dysfunction issues that may arise in the patient's care plan to optimize their overall well-being and quality of life.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Allopurinol is primarily used to prevent gout and hyperuricemia, which are common side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy often leads to the rapid destruction of cancer cells, releasing large amounts of uric acid into the bloodstream. This can cause hyperuricemia, leading to gout or kidney stones. Allopurinol works by inhibiting xanthine oxidase, an enzyme involved in uric acid production, thereby reducing uric acid levels. While myelosuppression and pancytopenia are concerns during chemotherapy, they are not directly addressed by allopurinol. Similarly, allopurinol does not inhibit cancer cell growth or replication.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can be rendered ineffective if taken with certain substances that interfere with its absorption. Dairy products, such as milk, contain calcium, which binds to tetracycline in the gastrointestinal tract, forming insoluble complexes that prevent the drug from being absorbed into the bloodstream. This interaction significantly reduces its therapeutic efficacy, making it crucial to instruct the client to avoid milk when taking the medication. Similarly, antacids (containing magnesium, aluminum, or calcium) and iron supplements also chelate tetracycline, decreasing its bioavailability, so choices A and B are incorrect and potentially harmful instructions. Reducing vitamin intake is unrelated to tetracycline's administration or efficacy, as vitamins do not typically interfere with its action unless specifically combined with minerals like iron or calcium. Therefore, the priority instruction is to avoid milk, ensuring the drug's effectiveness, which makes choice C the correct and most critical discharge teaching point.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ethylene glycol toxicity requires blocking alcohol dehydrogenase. Fomepizole inhibits this enzyme, preventing toxic metabolite formation. Bicarbonate treats acidosis, not metabolism. Disulfiram blocks aldehyde dehydrogenase. Furosemide and Methanol (E) are irrelevant. Fomepizole's specificity avoids ethanol's risks in a child, ensuring safe detoxification.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Pentazocine, a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist, acts as a kappa receptor agonist and a partial mu receptor agonist, providing analgesia in opioid-naive patients. However, in a heroin addict with high mu receptor tolerance, pentazocine's partial antagonism at mu receptors can displace full agonists like heroin, precipitating withdrawal symptoms—sweating, restlessness, and heightened pain perception. Tolerance to pentazocine itself wouldn't typically increase pain; it would reduce efficacy. Pentazocine is an effective analgesic in appropriate contexts, so ineffectiveness isn't the issue. Incorrect dosing might alter efficacy or toxicity but wouldn't specifically cause this withdrawal-like reaction. The patient's history of heroin use explains this response, as pentazocine's antagonist properties disrupt the opioid equilibrium, unmasking withdrawal in a dependent individual.