ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is creating a care plan for a patient suffering from allergic rhinitis. Which of the following outcomes should the nurse identify?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Improved coping with lifestyle modifications. This outcome is appropriate for a patient with allergic rhinitis as it focuses on helping the patient manage the condition through lifestyle changes, such as avoiding allergens and using medications as prescribed. By improving coping skills, the patient can better manage symptoms and reduce the impact of allergic rhinitis on daily life. Rationale: 1. A: Appropriate use of prophylactic antibiotics is not relevant for allergic rhinitis, which is not typically treated with antibiotics. 2. B: Safe injection of corticosteroids is not a primary treatment for allergic rhinitis and may not be necessary for all patients. 3. C: Improved skin integrity is not a priority outcome for allergic rhinitis, as it primarily affects the respiratory system, not the skin. Summary: Improving coping with lifestyle modifications is the most relevant outcome for a patient with allergic rhinitis, as it addresses the management of symptoms and overall quality of
Question 2 of 9
The patient is having at least 75% of nutritional needs met by enteral feeding, so the health care provider has ordered the parenteral nutrition (PN) to be discontinued. However, the nurse notices that the PN infusion has fallen behind. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C - Taper infusion gradually): 1. Tapering the infusion gradually allows for a smooth transition off PN without causing metabolic disturbances. 2. Abruptly stopping PN can lead to hypoglycemia and electrolyte imbalances. 3. Increasing the rate may cause fluid overload or hyperglycemia. 4. Hanging 5% dextrose alone does not provide adequate nutrition and may not meet the patient's needs.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has just returned to the postsurgical unit from post-anesthetic recovery after breast surgery for removal of a malignancy. What is the most likely major nursing diagnosis to include in this patients immediate plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute pain related to tissue manipulation and incision. This is the most likely major nursing diagnosis because post-surgical pain is a common and expected occurrence after breast surgery. The patient is likely to experience pain due to tissue manipulation and incision during the surgery. Addressing acute pain is crucial for the patient's comfort, well-being, and overall recovery. Choice B (Ineffective coping related to surgery) may be a secondary nursing diagnosis, but acute pain takes priority as it directly impacts the patient's immediate comfort and recovery. Choice C (Risk for trauma related to post-surgical injury) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis since the patient has already undergone surgery and is not at risk for further injury at this point. Choice D (Chronic sorrow related to change in body image) is not the most immediate concern post-surgery; addressing acute pain is more critical.
Question 4 of 9
A child has been diagnosed with a severe walnut allergy after suffering an anaphylactic reaction. What is a priority for health education?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The need for the parents to carry an epinephrine pen. This is the priority for health education because in case of another anaphylactic reaction to walnuts, immediate administration of epinephrine can be life-saving. Immunotherapy (choice A) is not the primary focus in an emergency situation. Maintaining immunization status (choice C) is important but not as critical as having an epinephrine pen. Avoiding high potential allergens (choice D) is important but having an epinephrine pen takes precedence in managing severe allergic reactions.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a brain tumor has begun to exhibit signs of cachexia. What subsequent assessment should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessment of nutritional status. Cachexia is a complex metabolic syndrome characterized by weight loss, muscle wasting, and weakness commonly seen in cancer patients. Assessing the patient's nutritional status is crucial to address the underlying causes of cachexia and to develop an appropriate management plan. This assessment includes evaluating dietary intake, weight changes, body composition, and nutritional deficiencies. Choice A: Assessment of peripheral nervous function is not the priority in this case as cachexia is primarily related to metabolic and nutritional issues rather than peripheral nervous system dysfunction. Choice B: Assessment of cranial nerve function is also not the priority since cachexia is not directly associated with cranial nerve dysfunction. Choice D: Assessment of respiratory status may be important in general patient care, but in this case, addressing the underlying nutritional issues that are contributing to cachexia should be the priority.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient with stage 3 HIV. After assessing the patients gastrointestinal system and analyzing the data, what is most likely to be the priority nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diarrhea. In stage 3 HIV, gastrointestinal issues are common due to weakened immune system. Diarrhea can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, making it the priority nursing diagnosis. Acute Abdominal Pain (A) may be a symptom but not the priority. Bowel Incontinence (C) and Constipation (D) are less likely in stage 3 HIV.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is charting on a patient’s record. Whichaction will the nurse take that is accurate legally?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Charts legibly. This is accurate legally because clear and legible documentation is crucial for accurately conveying patient information, ensuring continuity of care, and meeting legal standards. Illegible handwriting can lead to errors in patient care and legal issues. Choice B is incorrect as labeling a patient as "belligerent" without evidence can be perceived as unprofessional and potentially harmful to the patient. Choice C is incorrect as writing an entry for another nurse can lead to inaccurate documentation and legal consequences. Choice D is incorrect because using correction fluid can raise suspicion of tampering with records and compromise the integrity of the documentation.
Question 8 of 9
A patient comes to the ophthalmology clinic for an eye examination. The patient tells the nurse that he often sees floaters in his vision. How should the nurse best interpret this subjective assessment finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because floaters are commonly caused by age-related changes in the vitreous humor of the eye, such as the formation of tiny fibers or clumps. These floaters are typically harmless and not a cause for concern. Choice B is incorrect because glasses do not affect floaters in the eye. Choice C is incorrect because floaters are not a primary symptom of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because weakened ciliary muscles are not typically associated with floaters. Therefore, the most appropriate interpretation is that seeing floaters is a normal aging process of the eye.
Question 9 of 9
A nursing student is learning how to perform sexual assessments using the PLISSIT model. According to this model, the student should begin an assessment by doing which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ensuring patient privacy. In the PLISSIT model, ensuring patient privacy is crucial as it creates a safe and confidential environment for discussing sensitive topics like sexual health. This step helps build trust and allows the patient to feel comfortable sharing intimate details. Briefly teaching about normal sexual physiology (A) may come later in the assessment process. Assuring confidentiality (B) is important but doesn't address the immediate need for privacy. Asking if the patient is willing to discuss sexual functioning (C) assumes patient readiness without first establishing a private setting.