The nurse is counseling a client who is trying to stop smoking. According to the Theory of Planned Behavior, which factor would the nurse recognize as representing risk perception?

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Environmental and Occupational Safety and Health Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse is counseling a client who is trying to stop smoking. According to the Theory of Planned Behavior, which factor would the nurse recognize as representing risk perception?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In the Theory of Planned Behavior, risk perception is the belief that a behavior is harmful. Here's a step-by-step rationale: 1. Risk perception involves the individual's belief about the negative consequences of a behavior. 2. Choice A relates to subjective norm (influence of others), not risk perception. 3. Choice B relates to behavior (smelling of smoke), not risk perception. 4. Choice D relates to past behavior (quitting attempts), not risk perception. Therefore, the client's belief that smoking is unhealthy represents risk perception as it reflects the understanding of the harm associated with smoking.

Question 2 of 5

Which concept should the nurse use when providing care for individuals who are incarcerated?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because caring for incarcerated individuals involves a lack of privacy due to the institutional setting. Nurses must be aware of this to maintain confidentiality and respect boundaries. A is incorrect as education levels may vary. C is incomplete. D is incorrect because therapeutic nurse-client relationships are crucial in correctional nursing for effective care and rehabilitation.

Question 3 of 5

Which action by the occupational health nurse is a secondary prevention activity?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Screening for hearing loss. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat health issues in their early stages to prevent progression. Screening for hearing loss helps identify potential problems early, allowing for timely intervention. Safety inspections (B) are primary prevention by identifying hazards before harm occurs. Educating employees about eye protection (C) is also primary prevention. Completing a physical assessment after an injury (D) is tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and preventing complications.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following is considered to be a genomic competency for the public health workforce by the National Office of Public Health Genomics?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the National Office of Public Health Genomics emphasizes the importance of public health professionals recognizing the limitations of their own knowledge and seeking appropriate expertise when needed. Judgment consistent with making referrals shows awareness of one's competency level in genomics, which is crucial for effective public health practice. Interpreting a karyotype (A) and running a Genome-wide Association Study (C) are technical skills that may not be necessary for all public health professionals. Choice B is not a valid option as it is incomplete.

Question 5 of 5

What makes genetics hard?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because genetics is complex and multifaceted. 1. A: Presence of a gene not defining phenotype shows gene-environment interactions. 2. B: Hidden genes in carriers illustrate the concept of genetic variability. 3. C: Both parents' contributions are crucial due to inheritance patterns. Combining these reasons, genetics is challenging due to its intricate nature encompassing gene-environment interactions, genetic variability, and inheritance patterns.

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