The nurse is concerned that a patient is at increased risk of developing a pulmonary embolus and develops a plan of care for prevention to include whic h intervention?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mobility. Maintaining mobility helps prevent blood stasis, a leading factor in the development of pulmonary embolism. Movement promotes circulation, reducing the risk of blood clots. A: Antiseptic oral care is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to preventing pulmonary embolism. B: Bed rest with head of bed elevated can actually increase the risk of clots due to immobility. C: Coughing and deep breathing are beneficial for preventing respiratory complications but do not address the underlying cause of pulmonary embolism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Graduated compression stockings. These stockings help prevent blood from pooling in the legs, reducing the risk of DVT and PE. They improve circulation and reduce venous stasis. Option B, heparin, is used for treatment, not prevention. Option C, sequential compression devices, help prevent DVT but are not as effective as compression stockings. Option D, strict bed rest, can actually increase the risk of DVT by reducing blood flow.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obtain a portable x-ray to confirm placement. This is the priority intervention because it ensures the arterial line is correctly positioned, reducing the risk of complications such as dislodgement or improper placement. Applying a pressure dressing (choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority. Ensuring tubing connections are tightened (choice B) is important for preventing leaks but does not address placement. Restraining the affected extremity (choice D) is unnecessary and can lead to complications. The x-ray confirms correct placement, ensuring accurate monitoring and treatment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Option C is the correct answer because when caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter receiving continuous enteral feedings, it is crucial to level and zero reference the transducer with the patient's head of bed elevated to 30 degrees. This position helps to ensure accurate hemodynamic measurements, as the head of bed elevation minimizes the impact of intra-abdominal pressure on the catheter readings. By referencing the transducer in this position, the nurse can obtain reliable and precise hemodynamic values. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: This option is incorrect because delaying documentation until the patient is in the supine position can lead to inaccuracies in the hemodynamic readings due to changes in patient positioning. B: Leveling and zero referencing the transducer with the patient in the supine position is not ideal as it does not account for the impact of intra-abdominal pressure on the catheter readings in patients receiving enteral feedings. D: Leveling and zero referencing

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mixed venous (SvO2) of 40%. In septic shock, improving oxygen delivery to tissues is vital. SvO2 reflects the balance between oxygen delivery and consumption. A value of 40% indicates adequate oxygen delivery to tissues. A: Arterial lactate level of 1.0 mEq/L - Although a low lactate level is good, it does not directly indicate improved oxygen delivery. B: Cardiac output of 2.5 L/min - Cardiac output should ideally increase to improve oxygen delivery, so 2.5 L/min is low for a 70-kg patient. D: Cardiac index of 1.5 L/min/m2 - Cardiac index is cardiac output adjusted for body surface area. 1.5 L/min/m2 is low and indicates inadequate cardiac function for a patient in septic shock.