ATI RN
Basics of Patient Care Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is concerned about the skin integrity of the patient in the intraoperative phase of surgery. Which action will the nurse take to minimize skin breakdown?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Securing attachments to the operating table with foam padding. This action helps distribute pressure evenly, reducing the risk of skin breakdown. Foam padding acts as a protective barrier between the patient's skin and the operating table, minimizing friction and pressure points. This intervention promotes skin integrity by preventing tissue ischemia and damage. Incorrect options: A: Encouraging the patient to bathe before surgery may not directly impact skin breakdown during the intraoperative phase. C: Periodically adjusting the patient during surgery may disrupt the surgical procedure and increase the risk of complications. D: Measuring the time a patient is in one position during surgery is important but does not actively prevent skin breakdown; it is more about monitoring than prevention.
Question 2 of 5
Your adult patient is experiencing a prolonged episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia but remains stable at the present time. He denies chest pain, shortness of breath, and his skin is warm and dry. He has failed to convert to a normal sinus rhythm after receiving the max dosage of adenosine in succession. What is your next step?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer procainamide. Procainamide is a Class I antiarrhythmic medication that can be used for the management of stable paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) when adenosine fails. Procainamide works by slowing conduction through the atrioventricular node and can help convert the patient to a normal sinus rhythm. Administering verapamil (Choice A) can be risky in patients with PSVT as it can potentially worsen the condition and cause hypotension. Obtaining expert consultation (Choice C) is always a good practice, but in this scenario, immediate intervention is needed. Administering Adenocard (Choice D) is not recommended as the patient has already received the max dosage of adenosine without converting to normal sinus rhythm.
Question 3 of 5
You arrive on-scene of a seizure call to find a 22-year-old patient actively seizing. Family on scene reports the patient has an epileptic seizure disorder that sometimes causes seizures that last a minute or two. Today, the seizure has lasted for longer than fifteen minutes prior to your arrival without a break in the tonic-clonic phase. Your attempts to gain IV access are restricted due to the ongoing seizure activity. Which of the following is the drug of choice for intramuscular injection to control the prolonged seizure in this situation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lorazepam. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts quickly to terminate seizures. In this scenario, where the seizure has lasted longer than fifteen minutes without stopping, it is considered status epilepticus and requires immediate treatment. Lorazepam can be given intramuscularly when IV access is not readily available. Thiamine (A) is used for alcohol-related seizures, not prolonged seizures. 50 percent dextrose (B) is for hypoglycemia-related seizures. Etomidate (D) is a general anesthetic, not used for seizure termination.
Question 4 of 5
The CHARTE method and SOAP method are two methods utilized by paramedics to complete the narrative portion of the patient care report. Which of the following is not a component of the CHARTE method?
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is E: Transport. In the CHARTE method, the components are Chief complaint, History, Assessment, Rx/Treatment, Transport, and Evaluation. Transport is not a component but rather a step in the patient care process. Chief complaint is the reason for the call, History is the patient's background, Assessment is the evaluation of the patient, Rx/Treatment is the actions taken, and Evaluation is the outcome. The other choices are incorrect because they are all integral components of the CHARTE method.
Question 5 of 5
After intubating your apneic patient, what tube placement confirmation means should be assessed first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Attach capnography to determine the presence of ventilatory waveform. Capnography provides immediate feedback on the effectiveness of ventilation, crucial in assessing tube placement. First, confirm if CO2 waveform is present, indicating proper tube placement in the trachea. If waveform absent, reposition tube. Auscultation (Choice A) may not accurately confirm tracheal intubation. End-tidal CO2 detector (Choice C) is efficient but not the first step. Auscultating over the epigastric region (Choice D) is inappropriate for confirming tube placement.