ATI RN
Basics of Patient Care Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is concerned about the skin integrity of the patient in the intraoperative phase of surgery. Which action will the nurse take to minimize skin breakdown?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Securing attachments to the operating table with foam padding. This action helps distribute pressure and reduce the risk of skin breakdown by providing cushioning and support. Securing attachments with foam padding minimizes direct pressure on bony prominences, enhancing skin integrity. A: Encouraging the patient to bathe before surgery does not directly address skin breakdown prevention during the intraoperative phase. C: Periodically adjusting the patient during the surgical procedure may disrupt the surgical field and increase the risk of complications. D: Measuring the time a patient is in one position during surgery is important but does not actively prevent skin breakdown; it is more focused on monitoring positioning duration.
Question 2 of 5
Your adult patient is experiencing a prolonged episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia but remains stable at the present time. He denies chest pain, shortness of breath, and his skin is warm and dry. He has failed to convert to a normal sinus rhythm after receiving the max dosage of adenosine in succession. What is your next step?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Assess the situation - Patient is currently stable without any concerning symptoms. Step 2: Review previous treatment - Patient failed to convert with max dosage of adenosine. Step 3: Choose the next appropriate medication - Procainamide is recommended for stable patients with ongoing SVT not responding to adenosine. Step 4: Administer procainamide - It is effective in converting SVT and has a longer duration of action compared to adenosine. Summary: A: Verapamil is contraindicated in patients with stable SVT as it can cause hypotension. C: While expert consultation is valuable, immediate action is needed to manage the ongoing SVT. D: Administering Adenocard again is not recommended as it has already been tried at max dosage.
Question 3 of 5
You arrive on-scene of a seizure call to find a 22-year-old patient actively seizing. Family on scene reports the patient has an epileptic seizure disorder that sometimes causes seizures that last a minute or two. Today, the seizure has lasted for longer than fifteen minutes prior to your arrival without a break in the tonic-clonic phase. Your attempts to gain IV access are restricted due to the ongoing seizure activity. Which of the following is the drug of choice for intramuscular injection to control the prolonged seizure in this situation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lorazepam. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing status epilepticus, a medical emergency where seizures persist without recovery between them. Lorazepam is the drug of choice for intramuscular injection to control prolonged seizures due to its rapid onset of action and efficacy in terminating seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain, thereby suppressing seizure activity. Thiamine (A) is used to prevent or treat thiamine deficiency, not for seizure control. D50 (B) is used in hypoglycemic emergencies, not for seizures. Etomidate (D) is a general anesthetic, not indicated for seizure management.
Question 4 of 5
The CHARTE method and SOAP method are two methods utilized by paramedics to complete the narrative portion of the patient care report. Which of the following is not a component of the CHARTE method?
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Step 1: The CHARTE method includes components: Chief complaint, History, Assessment, Rx (treatment), Transport, and Evaluation. Step 2: Each letter in CHARTE represents a key component of the patient care report. Step 3: "Transport" is a component in the CHARTE method, ensuring patients are safely transported to the appropriate facility. Step 4: Therefore, "Transport" is a part of the CHARTE method. This makes option A incorrect. Step 5: As "Transport" is a component, the correct answer is E: Chief complaint, which is not part of the CHARTE method.
Question 5 of 5
After intubating your apneic patient, what tube placement confirmation means should be assessed first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Attach capnography to determine the presence of ventilatory waveform. This is the first tube placement confirmation to assess because it provides immediate feedback on proper endotracheal tube placement by showing a waveform indicating exhaled CO2. This confirms the tube is in the trachea and not the esophagus. Auscultating lung fields (A) only confirms air entry but not tube placement. An end-tidal CO2 detector (C) provides immediate confirmation like capnography but does not show the waveform for visualization. Auscultating over the epigastric region (D) is not a reliable method for confirming tube placement.