Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because initiating the alcohol withdrawal protocol shows an understanding of managing a patient at risk for alcohol withdrawal syndrome. This protocol involves carefully monitoring the patient's symptoms, providing appropriate medications, and ensuring a safe environment. Option A is incorrect as it downplays the seriousness of alcohol withdrawal. Option B is incorrect as there are assessment tools available for identifying alcohol withdrawal. Option C is incorrect as pain management should be tailored to the individual's needs, not necessarily lessened due to alcohol withdrawal risk.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adherence to procedures by nursing staff. This should be evaluated first because medication errors are often caused by human factors such as staff not following proper procedures. By assessing adherence, the root cause of errors can be identified and addressed. Choice B: Clarity of interdisciplinary communication may contribute to errors but doesn't directly address staff adherence to procedures. Choice C: Number of new employees could be a factor, but focusing on adherence to procedures is more crucial. Choice D: Changes in administration procedures may impact errors, but evaluating staff adherence is more immediate and directly related to errors.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D - Patient who was successfully weaned and extubated 4 hours ago and now has no urine output for the last 6 hours. This patient should be assessed first because the absence of urine output for 6 hours after being extubated could indicate acute kidney injury or other serious complications that need immediate attention. Urine output is a crucial indicator of renal function and can reflect the patient's overall hemodynamic status. In contrast, the other choices do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Choice A involves a patient in rest mode post-failed breathing trial, which does not require immediate assessment. Choice B mentions continuous PETCO2 monitoring, which is important but not as urgent as assessing a patient with no urine output. Choice C describes a patient with a ScvO2 of 69%, which may need monitoring but does not indicate an urgent priority compared to assessing a patient with no urine output after recent extubation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a patient with a history of fluid overload due to heart failure is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury. Heart failure can lead to decreased kidney perfusion causing acute kidney injury. In this scenario, the patient's fluid overload exacerbates the situation, further compromising kidney function. Choice A is incorrect as aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury but the duration of 6 days is less concerning compared to chronic fluid overload from heart failure in choice D. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension does not directly increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Choice C is incorrect as the patient being discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy does not necessarily indicate a higher risk compared to chronic fluid overload.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Hypoxemia results in decreased oxygen levels in the blood, stimulating the body to increase heart rate to improve oxygen delivery. Tachycardia is an early sign of the cardiovascular system compensating for hypoxemia. Heart block (A) is a disruption in the electrical conduction within the heart and is not directly related to hypoxemia. Restlessness (B) is a non-specific sign and can be caused by various factors. Tachypnea (D) is an increased respiratory rate, which is a response to hypoxemia but not a direct effect on the cardiovascular system.