The nurse is caring for an older adult client who is hospitalized with a second episode of pneumonia in the past 18 months. The client has expressed frustration to the nurse and states, 'I never got sick when I was younger. Why is this happening?' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

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Question 1 of 5

The nurse is caring for an older adult client who is hospitalized with a second episode of pneumonia in the past 18 months. The client has expressed frustration to the nurse and states, 'I never got sick when I was younger. Why is this happening?' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because as individuals age, there is a natural decline in the immune response known as immunosenescence. This leads to a decreased ability to fight off infections like pneumonia, making older adults more susceptible. Option A is incorrect as the immune system doesn't simply stop working with age. Option C is incorrect because aging actually leads to a decline in immune response speed and strength. Option D is incorrect as an increase in B cells would not hinder the immune response but rather indicates a potential boost in antibody production.

Question 2 of 5

Which diagnostic test result is consistent with a diagnosis of septic shock?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a hematocrit that is higher than normal is consistent with septic shock due to hemoconcentration from fluid shifting out of the blood vessels. A higher hematocrit indicates dehydration and decreased blood volume, which are common in septic shock. A is incorrect because septic shock typically results in metabolic acidosis, leading to a lower blood pH. C is incorrect because septic shock can lead to respiratory alkalosis, resulting in higher PaCO2 levels. D is incorrect because septic shock often leads to hyperkalemia, causing potassium levels to be higher than normal.

Question 3 of 5

The healthcare provider prescribes an indwelling urinary catheter for a client with urinary retention. Which intervention, along with strict aseptic technique, will decrease the risk of infection for this procedure?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Using an anesthetic lubricating gel during insertion Rationale: Using an anesthetic lubricating gel during catheter insertion helps to reduce discomfort and trauma to the urethral mucosa, decreasing the risk of infection. This gel also helps to facilitate a smoother insertion process, reducing the chances of introducing pathogens into the urethra. Strict aseptic technique is important to prevent infection but using the lubricating gel specifically addresses the risk of trauma and discomfort during catheterization. Incorrect Choices: A: Irrigating the catheter with sterile saline on a daily basis - While irrigation with sterile saline is important for maintaining catheter patency, it does not directly decrease the risk of infection during catheter insertion. B: Instructing the client to void around the catheter - This does not address the risk of infection during catheter insertion; it is important for proper catheter care post-insertion. D: Inflating the balloon while the catheter is in

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB) who is taking rifampin for treatment of the disease. Which nursing interventions are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer the medication on an empty stomach. Rifampin should be administered on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Taking it with meals reduces absorption. A: Administering with meals is incorrect as it reduces absorption. B: Recording a baseline visual examination is not specific to rifampin therapy. D: Administering by deep intramuscular injection is unnecessary and not recommended for rifampin administration. In summary, the correct answer is C because it optimizes medication absorption.

Question 5 of 5

When examining an older patient in the home, the home health nurse notices irregular patterns of bruising at different stages of healing on the patient’s body. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Talking with the patient alone allows for open communication and assessment of the situation. Step 2: Asking about the bruising can provide insight into the cause, such as potential abuse or neglect. Step 3: It is essential to gather information directly from the patient to ensure their safety and well-being. Step 4: This action prioritizes the patient's autonomy and right to disclose information. It also demonstrates a patient-centered approach. Summary: Option C is correct because it focuses on communication and assessment to address potential safety concerns. Options A and B address fall prevention, which is not the immediate concern. Option D jumps to radiographs without understanding the situation.

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