ATI RN
Complications in Early Pregnancy Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a woman with a history of a previous preterm birth. Based on current knowledge related to cervical incompetency, which should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because progesterone is recommended for women with a history of preterm birth due to cervical incompetency. Progesterone helps to reduce the risk of another preterm birth by supporting the cervix and preventing it from opening too early. It is important for the nurse to discuss the action and side effects of progesterone with the patient to ensure informed decision-making. Choice A is incorrect as an abdominal ultrasound is not directly related to managing cervical incompetency. Choice B is incorrect as positioning the patient on her left side does not address the issue of cervical incompetency. Choice D is also incorrect as monitoring blood pressure is not the primary intervention for managing cervical incompetency in this case.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Which should the nurse monitor closely because of her diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urine for glucose and ketones. In gestational diabetes, monitoring urine for glucose and ketones is crucial to assess blood sugar control and ketosis. Glucose in urine indicates hyperglycemia, and ketones indicate inadequate insulin and potential ketoacidosis. Monitoring edema (choice A) is not specific to gestational diabetes. Blood pressure, pulse, and respiration (choice B) are important but not specific to gestational diabetes. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit (choice D) does not directly reflect blood sugar control in gestational diabetes.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse has just completed an assessment on a client with mild pre-eclampsia. Which data indicate that her pre-eclampsia is worsening?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Blood pressure of 155/95) because an elevated blood pressure indicates worsening pre-eclampsia. In pre-eclampsia, high blood pressure is a key indicator of worsening condition, potentially leading to eclampsia or seizures if left untreated. Choices B (Urinary output is greater than 30 mL/hr), C (Deep tendon reflexes +2), and D (Client complains of blurred vision) are not indicative of worsening pre-eclampsia. Increased urinary output, normal deep tendon reflexes, and blurred vision are common symptoms in pre-eclampsia, but they do not necessarily signify worsening of the condition.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a woman who is suspected of having chorioamnionitis. Which of the following are risk factors for chorioamnionitis? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Changing cat litter. Chorioamnionitis is an infection of the amniotic fluid and membranes. Changing cat litter exposes the woman to toxoplasmosis, a risk factor for chorioamnionitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Vaginal exams during labor can introduce bacteria but are not a direct risk factor. Gestational diabetes is unrelated, and preterm premature rupture of membranes can increase infection risk but is not a direct cause like exposure to toxoplasmosis.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is monitoring a woman with signs and symptoms of preterm labor. Which does the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Need to refrain from putting any objects in the vagina. This is because introducing objects into the vagina can potentially trigger preterm labor by causing infections or irritating the cervix. It is important to maintain vaginal hygiene to prevent complications. Choice A is incorrect as monitoring fetal movements is important but not directly related to preventing preterm labor. Choice C is incorrect as taking a stool softener is unrelated to preterm labor. Choice D is incorrect as decreasing fluid intake is not recommended and may lead to dehydration, which is detrimental during pregnancy.